Parasitology – Study of Parasites MCQs
Parasitology (Study of Parasites) MCQs.
Format: Question → 4 options → correct answer marked with ✅ → brief explanation under every option. Difficulty spans CBSE/ICSE & NEET/CUET to CSIR-NET/GATE/DBT-BET and international exams (USMLE/PLAB/AMC; GRE/BMAT/IMAT).
Part 1 — Parasitology MCQs (Q1–Q25)
Q1. Parasitology primarily deals with the study of:
A. Bacteria
• Microbiology, not parasitology.
B. Parasites and their hosts ✅
• Focuses on protozoa, helminths, arthropods and host interactions.
C. Viruses
• Virology.
D. Fungi
• Mycology.
Q2. A definitive host is the host in which the parasite:
A. Only feeds
• Too broad.
B. Undergoes sexual reproduction ✅
• Key defining feature.
C. Undergoes asexual stages only
• That’s intermediate host.
D. Hibernates
• Not a parasitological term.
Q3. The intermediate host is where:
A. Asexual development or larval multiplication occurs ✅
• E.g., Plasmodium in mosquitoes is sexual; humans are intermediate.
B. Sexual reproduction occurs
• Definitive host.
C. The vector always lives
• Vector may or may not be host.
D. No development occurs
• Then it’s a paratenic host.
Q4. Vector in parasitology means:
A. Any animal host
• Too broad.
B. Arthropod that transmits a parasite/pathogen ✅
• Biological (development inside) or mechanical (transport only).
C. A carrier state in humans
• That’s “carrier.”
D. Free-living stage
• Not a vector.
Q5. Plasmodium falciparum is transmitted by:
A. Aedes mosquito
• Dengue/Zika.
B. Culex mosquito
• WNV/JE.
C. Anopheles mosquito (female) ✅
• Definitive host; sexual cycle in mosquito.
D. Tsetse fly
• Trypanosoma brucei.
Q6. The infective stage of Plasmodium for humans is:
A. Gametocyte
• Infects mosquito.
B. Sporozoite (from mosquito salivary glands) ✅
• Enters liver first.
C. Merozoite
• Invades RBCs after liver stage.
D. Ookinete
• Mosquito midgut stage.
Q7. Periodic fever in malaria corresponds to:
A. Hepatic schizogony
• Asymptomatic phase.
B. Synchronous RBC schizont rupture releasing merozoites ✅
• Triggers cytokine bursts → fever spikes.
C. Sporozoite entry
• Usually asymptomatic.
D. Gametocyte formation
• Not febrile trigger.
Q8. Hypnozoites (dormant liver forms) occur in:
A. P. falciparum
• No hypnozoites.
B. P. vivax and P. ovale ✅
• Cause relapses; treated with primaquine/tafenoquine.
C. P. malariae
• Can persist in blood, not liver dormancy.
D. Babesia
• Different parasite.
Q9. The drug of choice for uncomplicated falciparum malaria (non-pregnant, non-G6PD issues) in many regions is:
A. Chloroquine
• Widespread resistance.
B. Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) ✅
• Rapid parasite clearance + partner drug.
C. Quinine monotherapy
• Older, more toxic.
D. Primaquine alone
• Targets hypnozoites/gametocytes, not first-line alone.
Q10. Leishmania donovani causes:
A. Cutaneous disease only
• L. major/tropica usually.
B. Visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar) ✅
• Fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia.
C. Chagas disease
• T. cruzi.
D. Sleeping sickness
• T. brucei.
Q11. Vector of leishmaniasis is the:
A. Mosquito
• Malaria/dengue.
B. Tsetse fly
• Trypanosomiasis.
C. Sand fly (Phlebotomus/Lutzomyia) ✅
• Transmits promastigotes.
D. Blackfly
• Onchocerciasis.
Q12. African sleeping sickness is caused by:
A. T. cruzi
• American trypanosomiasis.
B. Trypanosoma brucei (gambiense/rhodesiense) ✅
• Transmitted by tsetse; CNS invasion → somnolence.
C. Leishmania mexicana
• Cutaneous.
D. Babesia microti
• Tick-borne malaria-like.
Q13. Chagas disease (American trypanosomiasis) is transmitted by:
A. Tsetse fly
• Africa.
B. Triatomine “kissing bug” (fecal contamination at bite site) ✅
• Trypanosoma cruzi; cardiomyopathy/megacolon.
C. Sand fly
• Leishmaniasis.
D. Ixodes tick
• Babesiosis, Lyme.
Q14. The intestinal ameba most associated with dysentery is:
A. Entamoeba coli
• Nonpathogenic commensal.
B. Entamoeba histolytica ✅
• Flask-shaped ulcers; can cause liver abscess.
C. Giardia lamblia
• Fatty diarrhea, not dysentery.
D. Balantidium coli
• Can cause dysentery but less common.
Q15. Giardiasis typically presents with:
A. Bloody diarrhea
• Invasive pathogens.
B. Watery, foul, fatty diarrhea; malabsorption ✅
• Pear-shaped flagellate adheres via ventral disk.
C. Constipation only
• Not typical.
D. Severe eosinophilia
• Helminths cause eosinophilia.
Q16. The acid-fast oocysts (modified acid-fast positive) in stool are diagnostic of:
A. Cryptosporidium ✅
• Tiny, 4–6 μm; watery diarrhea (AIDS, travelers, pools).
B. Entamoeba
• Not acid-fast.
C. Giardia
• Cysts/trophs visible, not acid-fast.
D. Trichomonas
• Not enteric.
Q17. Toxoplasma gondii definitive host is:
A. Human
• Intermediate host.
B. Dog
• Not definitive.
C. Cat (sexual cycle in feline intestine) ✅
• Transmitted via oocysts or tissue cysts.
D. Pig
• Intermediate reservoir.
Q18. Congenital toxoplasmosis classically causes:
A. Whooping cough
• Bacterial.
B. Chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications ✅
• “Triad”; avoid cat litter/undercooked meat in pregnancy.
C. Tetany
• Hypocalcemia.
D. Hematuria
• Not typical.
Q19. Taenia solium (pork tapeworm) can cause neurocysticercosis when humans:
A. Eat undercooked fish
• Diphyllobothrium.
B. Ingest T. solium eggs (fecal–oral) and become intermediate host ✅
• Larvae encyst in brain.
C. Are bitten by fleas
• Not involved.
D. Inhale cysticerci
• Not a route.
Q20. The fish tapeworm associated with B12 deficiency is:
A. Taenia saginata
• Beef tapeworm.
B. Diphyllobothrium latum ✅
• Longest tapeworm; megaloblastic anemia.
C. Echinococcus granulosus
• Hydatid cysts.
D. Hymenolepis nana
• Dwarf tapeworm.
Q21. Hydatid disease (liver/lung cysts, risk of anaphylaxis on rupture) is due to:
A. Taenia solium
• Cysticercosis differs.
B. Echinococcus granulosus ✅
• Dog tapeworm; sheep intermediate host; humans accidental.
C. Diphyllobothrium
• B12 deficiency.
D. Schistosoma mansoni
• Blood fluke.
Q22. Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm) diagnosis is best by:
A. Stool microscopy only
• Eggs often absent.
B. Perianal “scotch tape” test for eggs ✅
• Nocturnal perianal itching.
C. Serology
• Not required.
D. Blood smear
• Not applicable.
Q23. Ascaris lumbricoides infection commonly causes:
A. Severe bloody dysentery
• Not typical.
B. Intestinal obstruction; eosinophilia; lung migration (Löffler’s) ✅
• Large roundworm; fecal–oral eggs.
C. Perianal itching
• Pinworm.
D. Pernicious anemia
• Not related.
Q24. Hookworms (Ancylostoma/Necator) are acquired by:
A. Eating pork
• T. solium.
B. Skin penetration by filariform larvae from soil ✅
• Causes iron-deficiency anemia due to blood loss.
C. Mosquito bite
• Filaria.
D. Inhaling eggs
• Not route.
Q25. Wuchereria bancrofti (lymphatic filariasis) is transmitted by:
A. Sand fly
• Leishmania.
B. Mosquito (Culex/Anopheles/Aedes, region-dependent) ✅
• Adult worms in lymphatics → lymphedema/elephantiasis.
C. Blackfly
• Onchocerca.
D. Tsetse fly
• Trypanosoma brucei.
Part 2 — Parasitology MCQs (Q26–Q50)
Q26. Babesia microti resembles malaria but is transmitted by:
A. Sand fly
• Leishmania.
B. Ixodes tick (same as Lyme disease) ✅
• Malaria-like intraerythrocytic parasite; tetrads (“Maltese cross”).
C. Tsetse fly
• Trypanosoma brucei.
D. Mosquito
• Plasmodium.
Q27. Key feature of Babesia infection is:
A. Dormant liver stage
• No hypnozoites.
B. Hemolytic anemia, fever, risk severe in asplenic patients ✅
• Often confused with malaria.
C. Giant liver cysts
• Echinococcus.
D. Megacolon
• Chagas disease.
Q28. Trichomonas vaginalis is diagnosed by:
A. Stool exam
• Not intestinal.
B. Wet mount showing motile trophozoites (jerky motility) ✅
• Causes vaginitis, frothy discharge.
C. Acid-fast stain
• Cryptosporidium.
D. Thick blood smear
• Malaria.
Q29. Trichuris trichiura (whipworm) infection commonly causes:
A. Anal itching
• Pinworm.
B. Rectal prolapse in heavy infections ✅
• Eggs ingested; whip-like worm.
C. Megacolon
• T. cruzi.
D. B12 deficiency
• Fish tapeworm.
Q30. Strongyloides stercoralis is unique because it:
A. Has only sexual cycle
• No.
B. Can autoinfect inside host, persisting for decades ✅
• Risk of hyperinfection in immunosuppressed.
C. Is transmitted by pork
• T. solium.
D. Forms proglottids
• Tapeworms.
Q31. Schistosoma haematobium typically causes:
A. Hepatomegaly
• S. mansoni/japonicum.
B. Hematuria, bladder cancer risk ✅
• Eggs deposit in bladder venules.
C. Dysentery
• Intestinal schistosomes.
D. Lung cysts
• Hydatid.
Q32. The snail host of schistosomes is:
A. Fish
• Not correct.
B. Freshwater snail (intermediate host) ✅
• Cercariae infect humans by skin penetration.
C. Dog
• For Echinococcus.
D. Mosquito
• Malaria.
Q33. Fasciola hepatica (sheep liver fluke) infects humans via:
A. Eating pork
• T. solium.
B. Ingesting metacercariae on contaminated water plants ✅
• Causes hepatobiliary disease.
C. Mosquito bite
• Not trematode.
D. Fish
• Clonorchis/Opisthorchis.
Q34. Clonorchis sinensis (Chinese liver fluke) is transmitted by:
A. Vegetables only
• Fasciola.
B. Eating raw/undercooked freshwater fish ✅
• Biliary obstruction, cholangiocarcinoma risk.
C. Beef
• T. saginata.
D. Snail
• Snail is intermediate host, not direct source.
Q35. Paragonimus westermani (lung fluke) is acquired from:
A. Pork
• Tapeworms.
B. Undercooked crabs/crayfish ✅
• Chronic cough, hemoptysis (mimics TB).
C. Freshwater plants
• Fasciola.
D. Snail directly
• Not eaten by humans.
Q36. Hymenolepis nana (dwarf tapeworm) is unique because:
A. Needs two hosts always
• Not required.
B. Can complete lifecycle in humans alone ✅
• Autoinfection possible.
C. Infects via crab meat
• Paragonimus.
D. Requires pork
• T. solium.
Q37. Dracunculus medinensis (Guinea worm) transmission is by:
A. Mosquito
• Filaria.
B. Drinking water containing copepods (Cyclops) with larvae ✅
• Emerges painfully from skin blisters.
C. Fish
• Clonorchis.
D. Sand fly
• Leishmania.
Q38. The intermediate host of Dipylidium caninum (dog tapeworm) is:
A. Catfish
• Wrong.
B. Fleas (larvae ingest eggs, then infect dogs/humans) ✅
• “Cucumber seed” tapeworm.
C. Snails
• Not for Dipylidium.
D. Pigs
• T. solium.
Q39. The arthropod vector of Onchocerca volvulus (river blindness) is:
A. Mosquito
• Filaria.
B. Sand fly
• Leishmania.
C. Blackfly (Simulium) ✅
• Microfilariae cause dermatitis and blindness.
D. Tsetse fly
• Trypanosoma.
Q40. Loa loa (African eye worm) is transmitted by:
A. Blackfly
• Onchocerca.
B. Chrysops deerfly ✅
• Migrating worms visible in conjunctiva.
C. Tsetse fly
• Trypanosoma.
D. Flea
• Not vector.
Q41. Pediculus humanus capitis is:
A. Flea
• Wrong.
B. Head louse causing pediculosis ✅
• Blood-sucking insect, spreads via contact.
C. Tick
• Different arthropod.
D. Sand fly
• Leishmania vector.
Q42. The parasite causing scabies is:
A. Louse
• Not correct.
B. Mite Sarcoptes scabiei ✅
• Burrows in skin → intense itching, worse at night.
C. Flea
• Not cause.
D. Tick
• Not scabies.
Q43. Xenodiagnosis is used for:
A. Malaria
• Microscopy instead.
B. Chagas disease (T. cruzi; letting lab-bred bugs feed, then dissecting them) ✅
• Detects parasites in bug gut.
C. Leishmaniasis
• Bone marrow/splenic aspirates.
D. Filariasis
• Blood smear.
Q44. Thick and thin blood smears are diagnostic for:
A. Malaria and Babesia ✅
• Parasites inside RBCs visible.
B. Leishmaniasis
• Amastigotes in marrow.
C. Amoebiasis
• Stool microscopy.
D. Schistosomiasis
• Eggs in urine/stool.
Q45. ELISA and rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) for malaria detect:
A. WBC antigens
• No.
B. Parasite antigens (e.g., HRP2 for P. falciparum) ✅
• Useful in field diagnosis.
C. Antibodies only
• Too slow for acute.
D. Bacterial toxins
• Not malaria.
Q46. Albendazole/mebendazole act by:
A. Killing protozoa
• Not main.
B. Binding β-tubulin, inhibiting microtubules/glucose uptake in helminths ✅
• Broad-spectrum antihelminthics.
C. Blocking folate
• Sulfa drugs.
D. Inhibiting ergosterol
• Antifungals.
Q47. Praziquantel is the drug of choice for:
A. Ascaris
• Albendazole.
B. Schistosomiasis, tapeworms (trematodes, cestodes) ✅
• Increases Ca²⁺ permeability, spastic paralysis.
C. Giardiasis
• Metronidazole.
D. Malaria
• ACTs.
Q48. Ivermectin is effective against:
A. Amoebiasis
• Metronidazole.
B. Onchocerciasis (river blindness), strongyloidiasis, filariasis ✅
• Potentiates glutamate-gated Cl⁻ channels → paralysis.
C. Malaria
• Not effective.
D. Taeniasis
• Praziquantel.
Q49. Metronidazole is effective against:
A. Helminths
• No.
B. Anaerobic protozoa (Giardia, Entamoeba, Trichomonas) ✅
• Generates toxic free radicals.
C. Schistosomes
• Praziquantel instead.
D. Plasmodium
• Not first-line.
Q50. The “Big Three” parasites prioritized by WHO due to global burden are:
A. Giardia, Balantidium, Toxoplasma
• Not major worldwide burden.
B. Malaria, schistosomiasis, lymphatic filariasis ✅
• Together infect billions worldwide.
C. Trichomonas, Babesia, Loa loa
• More localized.
D. Trypanosoma, Leishmania, Giardia
• Important but less global.
Part 3 — Parasitology MCQs (Q51–Q75)
Q51. The main immune response effective against helminths is:
A. Th1 cell-mediated immunity
• More for intracellular protozoa.
B. Th2 response with IgE, eosinophils, mast cells ✅
• Classic anti-helminth defense.
C. Complement activation
• Limited role.
D. Cytotoxic T cells
• Important in viruses, not worms.
Q52. Parasites often evade host immunity by:
A. Destroying all RBCs
• Not always.
B. Antigenic variation, hiding in host cells, immunomodulation ✅
• Seen in Plasmodium, Trypanosoma, Leishmania.
C. Constant surface antigens
• Would expose them.
D. Complete absence of proteins
• Impossible.
Q53. Variant surface glycoprotein (VSG) switching is used by:
A. Plasmodium falciparum
• Uses PfEMP1 variation.
B. Trypanosoma brucei ✅
• Regular antigenic variation → chronic infection.
C. Giardia lamblia
• Has antigenic variation, but not VSGs.
D. Leishmania
• Different strategies.
Q54. Intracellular survival in macrophages is a hallmark of:
A. Giardia
• Extracellular.
B. Leishmania amastigotes (in macrophage phagolysosomes) ✅
• Inhibits oxidative burst.
C. Taenia solium
• Cysticerci in tissues.
D. Schistosoma
• Lives intravascular, not macrophages.
Q55. The “Malaria vaccine RTS,S/AS01” targets:
A. Merozoite surface proteins
• Not this vaccine.
B. Circumsporozoite protein of Plasmodium falciparum ✅
• Blocks liver-stage infection.
C. Gametocytes
• Transmission-blocking, but not this one.
D. Hypnozoites
• No vaccine for relapse.
Q56. Zoonotic toxoplasmosis is often acquired by:
A. Inhalation of spores
• Not typical.
B. Eating undercooked meat with cysts; cat feces with oocysts ✅
• Important risk in pregnancy.
C. Person-to-person contact
• Not usual.
D. Mosquito bite
• No vector.
Q57. Zoonotic echinococcosis (hydatid disease) is transmitted by:
A. Eating pork
• T. solium.
B. Dog–sheep cycle; humans are accidental hosts ✅
• Ingest eggs → cysts in liver/lungs.
C. Fish eating
• Clonorchis.
D. Mosquito
• Not helminths.
Q58. Zoonotic leishmaniasis is maintained mainly in:
A. Humans only
• Anthroponotic in some species, but…
B. Dogs and wild canids (reservoir hosts) ✅
• Important for visceral leishmaniasis cycle.
C. Birds
• Not reservoirs.
D. Cats
• Rare.
Q59. Zoonotic schistosomiasis can occur with:
A. Fish tapeworms
• Not related.
B. Animal schistosomes (bird schistosomes → swimmer’s itch in humans) ✅
• Cercarial dermatitis from nonhuman schistosomes.
C. Dogs with fleas
• Not schistosomiasis.
D. Cattle lice
• Not relevant.
Q60. Toxocara canis in humans causes:
A. Malaria
• No.
B. Visceral larva migrans (VLM), ocular larva migrans (OLM) ✅
• Accidental ingestion of dog roundworm eggs.
C. Filariasis
• Not same.
D. Dysentery
• Not protozoa.
Q61. Trichinella spiralis infection in humans is acquired by:
A. Skin penetration
• Hookworm.
B. Eating undercooked pork/wild game containing encysted larvae ✅
• Causes myositis, periorbital edema.
C. Mosquito bite
• Filaria.
D. Drinking water
• Guinea worm.
Q62. Zoonotic diphyllobothriasis occurs by:
A. Eating raw freshwater fish containing plerocercoid larvae ✅
• Fish tapeworm infection → B12 deficiency.
B. Eating beef
• T. saginata.
C. Eating vegetables
• Fasciola.
D. Mosquito bite
• Not relevant.
Q63. A common diagnostic method for intestinal protozoa is:
A. Chest X-ray
• Not useful.
B. Stool microscopy (wet mount, staining, concentration methods) ✅
• Detects cysts/trophozoites.
C. Blood smear
• Malaria/Babesia.
D. ELISA always
• Supplementary.
Q64. Molecular diagnostics (PCR) in parasitology are useful for:
A. High sensitivity and species differentiation (e.g., Plasmodium, Leishmania) ✅
• Confirmatory tests in reference labs.
B. Only bacteria
• Not true.
C. Routine village testing
• Not feasible yet.
D. Detecting only helminths
• Also protozoa.
Q65. Rapid antigen tests are widely available for:
A. Hookworms
• Stool exam needed.
B. Malaria, Giardia, Cryptosporidium ✅
• Detect specific parasite antigens.
C. Trichinella
• Not common.
D. Leishmania only
• Not exclusive.
Q66. Serology is most useful for:
A. Giardia
• Acute stool detection better.
B. Toxoplasma, Echinococcus, Trichinella, Leishmania ✅
• Detect antibodies for tissue parasites.
C. Malaria
• Detects past exposure only.
D. Hookworm
• Eggs in stool suffice.
Q67. Drug resistance in Plasmodium falciparum is linked to:
A. Viral coinfection
• Not direct.
B. Mutations in PfCRT (chloroquine resistance) and PfKelch13 (artemisinin resistance) ✅
• Critical resistance markers.
C. More hemoglobin
• Not mechanism.
D. Vitamin deficiency
• Not causal.
Q68. Resistance in Leishmania is often due to:
A. Capsule
• They don’t have capsule.
B. Efflux pumps and altered drug uptake (antimony resistance) ✅
• Major clinical challenge.
C. RBC invasion
• Not relevant.
D. Loss of mitochondria
• Not mechanism.
Q69. Ivermectin resistance in nematodes has been associated with:
A. Altered ergosterol
• Fungi.
B. Mutations in glutamate-gated chloride channels ✅
• Reduce drug binding.
C. RBC invasion
• Not worms.
D. Loss of mitochondria
• Not mechanism.
Q70. The basic reproductive number (R₀) in parasitology indicates:
A. How fast mosquitoes fly
• Not true.
B. Average number of secondary infections caused by one case in a susceptible population ✅
• Key epidemiology concept.
C. Number of parasites per host
• Parasitemia, not R₀.
D. Cure rate
• Different metric.
Q71. Epidemiological triad of parasitic diseases includes:
A. Vector, drug, patient
• Not full.
B. Agent (parasite), host, environment ✅
• Core public health framework.
C. Parasite, DNA, RNA
• Not public health model.
D. Animal, human, bacteria
• Too vague.
Q72. Zoonotic reservoirs are important in:
A. Malaria always
• Human-only in falciparum.
B. Leishmaniasis, toxoplasmosis, echinococcosis, trichinellosis ✅
• Reservoir hosts sustain transmission.
C. Amoebiasis
• Human-only.
D. Pinworm
• Human-only.
Q73. A parasite with no animal reservoir (strictly human) is:
A. Leishmania
• Zoonotic reservoirs exist.
B. Entamoeba histolytica ✅
• Humans are only natural host.
C. Toxoplasma
• Cats are definitive hosts.
D. Taenia solium
• Pigs are reservoirs.
Q74. Eradication feasibility of a parasite increases when:
A. Multiple animal reservoirs
• Makes eradication harder.
B. Single host (human only), effective diagnostics, effective treatment ✅
• Basis of smallpox and dracunculiasis programs.
C. High antigenic variation
• Harder to eradicate.
D. Asymptomatic carriers
• Hinders eradication.
Q75. One Health approach in parasitology emphasizes:
A. Only human treatment
• Too narrow.
B. Integration of human, animal, and environmental health to control zoonotic diseases ✅
• Critical for parasitic infections.
C. Only drug development
• Not sufficient.
D. Ignoring vectors
• Wrong approach.
Part 4 — Parasitology MCQs (Q76–Q100)
Q76. WHO’s malaria eradication strategy emphasizes:
A. Mass chloroquine only
• Resistance problem.
B. Vector control (ITNs, IRS), ACTs, diagnostics, vaccines ✅
• Integrated approach recommended.
C. Elimination of mosquitoes worldwide
• Impossible.
D. Vaccination alone
• RTS,S helps but not sole.
Q77. Insecticide-treated bed nets (ITNs) mainly reduce:
A. Pinworm
• Not vector-borne.
B. Anopheles mosquito bites → malaria transmission ✅
• Cost-effective prevention tool.
C. Hookworm
• Soil-borne.
D. Toxoplasma
• Not vector.
Q78. Indoor residual spraying (IRS) is effective against:
A. Snails
• Not target.
B. Mosquito vectors (malaria, filariasis) ✅
• Insecticide sprayed on walls.
C. Fleas
• Not IRS strategy.
D. Worms
• Not direct.
Q79. Mass drug administration (MDA) is used to control:
A. Amoebiasis
• Not practical.
B. Lymphatic filariasis, onchocerciasis, schistosomiasis, STHs ✅
• Preventive chemotherapy.
C. Pinworm
• Treated individually.
D. Malaria
• Not mass drug approach.
Q80. WHO’s target for lymphatic filariasis elimination includes:
A. Vaccination
• No vaccine.
B. MDA with DEC/ivermectin + albendazole for 5–7 years ✅
• Interrupts transmission.
C. Vector eradication
• Difficult.
D. Surgery only
• Only for lymphedema management.
Q81. Neglected tropical diseases (NTDs) include:
A. Tuberculosis
• Not NTD.
B. Soil-transmitted helminths, filariasis, schistosomiasis, leishmaniasis ✅
• Affect >1 billion globally.
C. HIV/AIDS
• Not classified as NTD.
D. Influenza
• Not NTD.
Q82. Onchocerciasis elimination program relies on:
A. Mosquito nets
• Not main.
B. Mass ivermectin distribution (Mectizan donation program) ✅
• Reduces microfilariae → blocks transmission.
C. Vaccination
• No vaccine.
D. Albendazole alone
• Not effective.
Q83. Schistosomiasis control uses:
A. Bed nets
• For mosquitoes.
B. Praziquantel mass treatment + snail control ✅
• Combination approach.
C. Metronidazole only
• For protozoa.
D. Surgery
• Not population strategy.
Q84. Dracunculiasis (Guinea worm disease) is targeted for eradication because:
A. Has multiple animal reservoirs
• Harder to eradicate.
B. Humans are main host; simple prevention (safe water filters) ✅
• Near eradication by Carter Center/WHO.
C. Requires expensive drugs
• No drug needed.
D. Spread by mosquitoes
• Not vector-borne.
Q85. Chagas disease control mainly involves:
A. Vaccination
• No vaccine.
B. Vector control of triatomine bugs, blood screening ✅
• Prevent transmission.
C. Bed nets
• Limited role.
D. Snail control
• Not relevant.
Q86. Zoonotic malaria (P. knowlesi) is transmitted from:
A. Dogs
• No.
B. Macaque monkeys via Anopheles mosquitoes ✅
• Emerging in Southeast Asia.
C. Pigs
• Not malaria host.
D. Birds
• Avian malaria, not zoonotic to humans.
Q87. Traveler’s malaria prophylaxis may include:
A. Albendazole
• For worms.
B. Mefloquine, atovaquone-proguanil, doxycycline ✅
• Recommended based on resistance patterns.
C. Praziquantel
• For flukes, not prophylaxis.
D. Ivermectin
• For filariasis, not malaria.
Q88. A traveler returning from Africa with cyclical fever, anemia, cerebral symptoms most likely has:
A. Schistosomiasis
• Causes hematuria, hepatosplenomegaly.
B. Falciparum malaria ✅
• Most dangerous, causes cerebral malaria.
C. Amoebiasis
• GI disease.
D. Trypanosomiasis
• Neurological, but not fever pattern.
Q89. A patient with perianal itching at night, positive tape test likely has:
A. Trichuris
• Rectal prolapse.
B. Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm) ✅
• Common in children.
C. Strongyloides
• Autoinfection.
D. Hookworm
• Anemia.
Q90. A farmer with iron-deficiency anemia, ground itch, worms in stool likely has:
A. Ascaris
• Causes obstruction.
B. Hookworm (Ancylostoma/Necator) ✅
• Blood-sucking intestinal nematodes.
C. Trichinella
• Muscle symptoms.
D. Schistosoma
• Hematuria/hepatosplenomegaly.
Q91. A patient with megaloblastic anemia after eating raw fish likely has:
A. Hookworm
• Causes iron-deficiency.
B. Diphyllobothrium latum infection ✅
• Fish tapeworm, B12 deficiency.
C. Ascaris
• Not anemia type.
D. Giardia
• Malabsorption, not B12 deficiency.
Q92. A child with hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia, fever in endemic India may have:
A. Malaria only
• Splenomegaly, but pancytopenia rare.
B. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) ✅
• Amastigotes in macrophages, transmitted by sandfly.
C. Amoebiasis
• Liver abscess, not pancytopenia.
D. Filariasis
• Lymphedema, not splenomegaly.
Q93. A farmer with cough, rusty sputum, history of eating crabs likely has:
A. Tuberculosis
• Chronic cough, but not crab link.
B. Paragonimus westermani (lung fluke) ✅
• Mimics TB.
C. Schistosoma
• Blood fluke.
D. Toxoplasma
• Not pulmonary.
Q94. A child with sudden seizures, brain cysts, history of pork ingestion most likely has:
A. Neurocysticercosis (Taenia solium) ✅
• Larval cysts in CNS.
B. Hydatid disease
• Liver/lung cysts.
C. Malaria
• No brain cysts.
D. Amoebiasis
• Abscess in liver.
Q95. Patient with bloody urine, bladder wall thickening, endemic Africa most likely has:
A. Hookworm
• Anemia.
B. Schistosoma haematobium infection ✅
• Eggs in bladder wall → hematuria, bladder cancer risk.
C. Trichuris
• Rectal prolapse.
D. Toxoplasma
• CNS disease.
Q96. Integrated Vector Management (IVM) strategy includes:
A. Single pesticide use
• Not sustainable.
B. Combination of environmental management, insecticides, biological control, community involvement ✅
• Sustainable approach.
C. Killing all mosquitoes
• Unrealistic.
D. Vaccination only
• Not vector management.
Q97. Neglected zoonotic helminths prioritized by WHO include:
A. Amoebiasis, giardiasis
• Protozoa.
B. Echinococcosis, taeniasis/cysticercosis, foodborne trematodiases ✅
• Global burden, often under-researched.
C. Malaria, filariasis
• NTDs, but not zoonotic helminths.
D. Cryptosporidiosis
• Protozoa.
Q98. Global elimination programs have nearly eradicated:
A. Malaria
• Still endemic.
B. Guinea worm disease (dracunculiasis) ✅
• <50 cases globally in 2022.
C. Schistosomiasis
• Still widespread.
D. Filariasis
• Still present.
Q99. Travel medicine recommends screening for parasitic infections especially in:
A. Short trips
• Risk lower.
B. Returning immigrants/refugees, long-term travelers, immunocompromised ✅
• Screen for strongyloides, schistosomiasis, malaria.
C. Only pregnant women
• Important, but not only.
D. Only children
• Not exclusive.
Q100. Why is parasitology crucial in global health exams (NEET, USMLE, GRE, IMAT)?
A. Only academic interest
• Incorrect.
B. Because parasites cause major morbidity, are exam-relevant, and link medicine, zoology, ecology, public health ✅
• Integrated importance.
C. Only tropical regions
• Global travel makes it worldwide issue.
D. Only for veterinarians
• Also human medicine.
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