Biotechnology MCQs
Part 1 — MCQs on Biotechnology (Q1–Q25)
Q1. The enzyme most directly responsible for sealing nicks in the sugar-phosphate backbone during cloning is:
A. DNA ligase ✅
• Joins 3′-OH and 5′-phosphate ends to form phosphodiester bonds—key for pasting inserts into vectors.
B. DNA polymerase I
• Adds nucleotides/removes primers (5′→3′ exonuclease) but does not seal nicks.
C. Reverse transcriptase
• Makes DNA from RNA; not a nick-sealing enzyme.
D. Topoisomerase
• Relieves supercoils; not used for covalent joining in standard ligation.
Q2. A key feature of sticky ends generated by many restriction enzymes is that they:
A. Promote directional cloning via complementary overhangs ✅
• Overhangs base-pair to enforce orientation and increase ligation efficiency.
B. Prevent vector recircularization without dephosphorylation
• Recircularization can still occur unless ends are dephosphorylated.
C. Are always 5′ overhangs
• Can be 5′ or 3′.
D. Cannot be generated by Type II enzymes
• Type II enzymes commonly create sticky ends.
Q3. In PCR, the annealing temperature is primarily determined by the:
A. Melting temperature (Tm) of primers ✅
• Annealing is set a few °C below primer Tm for specificity.
B. Mg²⁺ concentration only
• Mg²⁺ influences Tm but does not solely determine it.
C. DNA polymerase fidelity
• Fidelity is unrelated to annealing setpoint.
D. dNTP concentration
• Affects reaction chemistry, not the target annealing temp directly.
Q4. A plasmid origin of replication (ori) controls:
A. Copy number and host range ✅
• Ori dictates replication mechanism and compatible hosts.
B. Antibiotic resistance selection
• That’s the role of marker genes, not the ori.
C. Multiple cloning site presence
• MCS is engineered separately.
D. Insert orientation
• Determined by cloning strategy, not ori.
Q5. Which CRISPR nuclease creates staggered (sticky) ends in many contexts?
A. Cas9
• Typically makes blunt DSBs at a defined position relative to PAM.
B. Cas12a (Cpf1) ✅
• Produces 5′ overhangs and recognizes a T-rich PAM.
C. Cas13a
• Targets RNA, not DNA.
D. dCas9
• Catalytically dead; no cutting.
Q6. An expression vector differs from a simple cloning vector because it:
A. Has an origin of replication only
• Both have oris.
B. Contains a strong promoter and often a ribosome-binding site ✅
• Enables transcription/translation of the insert.
C. Lacks selectable markers
• Expression vectors still carry markers.
D. Cannot be used in bacteria
• Many expression vectors are bacterial (e.g., pET).
Q7. Which step makes cDNA libraries different from genomic libraries?
A. Random fragmentation of genomic DNA
• That’s for genomic libraries.
B. Reverse transcription of mRNA ✅
• cDNA derives from mature, spliced transcripts—no introns.
C. Use of cosmids
• Optional; not defining.
D. Use of Type IIS enzymes
• Not essential for library type.
Q8. Blue-white screening with lacZ α-complementation identifies recombinants because:
A. IPTG kills non-recombinants
• IPTG is an inducer, not toxic.
B. Insertion disrupts lacZα, preventing X-gal cleavage → white colonies ✅
• Recombinants lack β-gal activity; non-recombinants turn blue.
C. Recombinants grow only without antibiotic
• Selection is separate from screening.
D. White colonies always contain correct orientation
• White indicates insert, not orientation.
Q9. The Sanger sequencing method relies on:
A. High-fidelity polymerase only
• Not the defining feature.
B. Incorporation of chain-terminating ddNTPs ✅
• Lacks 3′-OH, terminating extension at specific bases.
C. RNA templates only
• Usually DNA templates.
D. Exonuclease mapping
• Not used in Sanger.
Q10. A His-tag is primarily used for:
A. Increasing enzyme turnover
• Tag doesn’t inherently increase activity.
B. Affinity purification on Ni²⁺/Co²⁺ resins ✅
• 6×His binds immobilized metal for easy purification.
C. DNA binding in EMSA
• Not the role of His-tag.
D. Nuclear localization
• NLS would be used, not His-tag.
Q11. Real-time PCR (qPCR) detects amplification by:
A. Post-run gel only
• That’s endpoint PCR.
B. Fluorescence during each cycle (e.g., SYBR Green or probes) ✅
• Allows quantification (Ct values).
C. Silver staining
• For proteins in gels, not qPCR.
D. Western blot
• Protein detection, not DNA amplification.
Q12. In ELISA, the sandwich format is best suited for:
A. Detecting small haptens
• Often too small for two antibodies simultaneously.
B. Measuring nucleic acids
• Not typical ELISA target.
C. Quantifying proteins/antigens with two non-competing antibodies ✅
• Capture + detection Ab increases specificity.
D. Qualitative only
• Sandwich ELISA is quantitative.
Q13. The Beer–Lambert law (A = ε c l) is used in biotech to:
A. Estimate nucleic acid/protein concentration by absorbance ✅
• E.g., A260 for nucleic acids, A280 for proteins.
B. Determine pKa of buffers
• Not directly.
C. Measure enzyme Km
• Requires activity assays, not absorbance alone.
D. Calculate plasmid copy number
• Not from Beer–Lambert alone.
Q14. In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA migrates toward the:
A. Anode (positive electrode) ✅
• DNA is negatively charged due to phosphate backbone.
B. Cathode
• Opposite direction.
C. Neutral electrode
• Not applicable.
D. Depends only on buffer pH
• Standard buffers ensure negative charge; direction is constant.
Q15. Micropropagation (plant tissue culture) commonly uses which cytokinin to promote shoot proliferation?
A. BAP (6-benzylaminopurine) ✅
• Widely used for shoot induction.
B. IAA
• Auxin; favors roots/callus depending on ratio.
C. ABA
• Often inhibits growth; promotes dormancy.
D. GA₃
• Promotes elongation, not primary for shoot induction in vitro.
Q16. A bioreactor’s sparger is primarily for:
A. pH control
• Usually via acid/base addition.
B. Gas (e.g., air/oxygen) dispersion to improve mass transfer ✅
• Increases kLa for aerobic cultures.
C. Temperature regulation
• Done via jacket/coils.
D. Foam removal
• Antifoam/mechanical breakers handle foam.
Q17. Fed-batch culture is advantageous because it:
A. Has constant volume with no feeding
• That’s batch.
B. Prevents substrate inhibition/Catabolite repression by controlled feeding ✅
• Extends productive phase and yield.
C. Is identical to chemostat
• Chemostat is continuous with steady state.
D. Eliminates need for DO control
• DO still managed.
Q18. Downstream processing step that concentrates proteins without denaturation:
A. Autoclaving
• Sterilizes; denatures proteins.
B. Ultrafiltration (membrane concentration) ✅
• Size-based concentration, gentle on proteins.
C. Sonication
• Cell lysis; may denature.
D. SDS-PAGE
• Analytical, denaturing.
Q19. Monoclonal antibodies are produced by:
A. Polyclonal serum collection
• Mixed specificities.
B. Hybridoma technology (B-cell fused with myeloma) ✅
• Single epitope specificity, immortal line.
C. Affinity chromatography
• Purification method, not production.
D. Antigen precipitation
• Not manufacturing.
Q20. Golden Gate cloning uses Type IIS restriction enzymes because they:
A. Cut within their recognition site only
• Type IIS cut outside the site.
B. Create custom overhangs outside the recognition site for seamless assembly ✅
• Enables scarless, multi-part assembly.
C. Require blunt ends
• Often generate sticky, user-defined overhangs.
D. Are inactive at 37 °C
• Many are active at 37 °C.
Q21. GFP tagging is primarily used to:
A. Increase protein solubility only
• Sometimes helps, but not the main purpose.
B. Visualize protein localization/expression in vivo ✅
• Fluorescent reporter fusion.
C. Enhance catalytic activity
• Not typical.
D. Replace the need for antibodies in Western blot
• Western blot detects proteins; GFP is a reporter.
Q22. Southern blotting detects:
A. Proteins
• That’s Western blot.
B. RNA
• That’s Northern blot.
C. Specific DNA sequences ✅
• DNA → gel → transfer → labeled probe.
D. Metabolites
• Not via blotting.
Q23. HAT selection in hybridoma formation works because myeloma partners are:
A. HGPRT-negative and cannot use the salvage pathway ✅
• Only fused cells survive in HAT medium.
B. Resistant to aminopterin
• Aminopterin blocks de novo synthesis; resistance would defeat selection.
C. Able to grow without thymidine
• HAT requires salvage using thymidine/hypoxanthine.
D. B-cells immortal on their own
• Primary B-cells are not immortal.
Q24. Gibson Assembly joins DNA fragments by:
A. Restriction-ligase cloning
• Not required.
B. Exonuclease-mediated overlap chewing, polymerase fill-in, and ligase sealing ✅
• One-pot, scarless assembly using homologous overlaps.
C. Site-specific recombinases only
• Different method (e.g., Gateway).
D. CRISPR HDR exclusively
• Not needed for in-vitro joining.
Q25. A biosensor that uses glucose oxidase and measures current is classified as:
A. Optical biosensor
• Uses light; not this case.
B. Piezoelectric biosensor
• Measures mass-induced frequency shifts.
C. Amperometric biosensor (electrochemical) ✅
• Current change reflects H₂O₂/electron transfer from glucose oxidation.
D. Calorimetric biosensor
• Measures heat changes.
Part 2 — MCQs on Biotechnology (Q26–Q50)
Q26. In next-generation sequencing (NGS), Illumina technology relies on:
A. Pyrophosphate detection
• That’s Roche 454 sequencing (pyrosequencing).
B. Reversible dye terminators incorporated during synthesis ✅
• Each cycle adds a fluorescent base, then cleaved for next cycle.
C. Exonuclease cleavage of DNA one base at a time
• That’s Pacific Biosciences SMRT/IPD analysis.
D. Nanopore current fluctuations
• Oxford Nanopore technology, not Illumina.
Q27. Shotgun sequencing is characterized by:
A. Sequencing genes in known order
• That’s map-based sequencing.
B. Random fragmentation of genome and assembly by overlaps ✅
• Computer algorithms reassemble sequences.
C. Sequencing cDNAs only
• That’s EST/mRNA-seq.
D. Use of only single-end reads
• Can be paired-end for better assembly.
Q28. A major advantage of Taq DNA polymerase in PCR is:
A. Thermostability at 94–95 °C denaturation ✅
• Isolated from Thermus aquaticus.
B. Proofreading activity
• Taq lacks 3′→5′ exonuclease, unlike Pfu.
C. Highest fidelity among polymerases
• Not true; error rate is higher.
D. Works only at room temperature
• Requires high-temperature cycling.
Q29. The Western blot technique involves:
A. DNA probe hybridization
• That’s Southern blot.
B. RNA probe hybridization
• Northern blot.
C. Protein detection using antibodies after electrophoresis & transfer ✅
• Specific detection on membrane.
D. Protein purification
• Analytical, not preparative.
Q30. A knockout mouse is best generated using:
A. RNA interference only
• Silences expression but not a permanent knockout.
B. Homologous recombination in embryonic stem cells ✅
• Classical gene-targeting strategy.
C. ELISA screening
• Not used for knockouts.
D. Western blotting
• For detection, not generation.
Q31. RNA interference (RNAi) works by:
A. siRNA guiding RISC to degrade complementary mRNA ✅
• Post-transcriptional gene silencing.
B. Binding DNA promoter regions
• That’s transcriptional regulation, not RNAi.
C. Randomly mutating the genome
• Not involved.
D. Increasing translation efficiency
• RNAi reduces translation.
Q32. A reporter gene commonly used in plant biotechnology is:
A. GUS (β-glucuronidase) ✅
• Gives blue color with X-gluc substrate.
B. HGPRT
• Used in mammalian HAT selection.
C. p53
• A tumor suppressor, not a reporter.
D. RNA polymerase
• Enzyme for transcription, not a marker.
Q33. Which of the following is a plant-based edible vaccine?
A. Polio vaccine grown in Vero cells
• Mammalian cell culture, not plant.
B. Hepatitis B antigen expressed in potato/banana ✅
• Edible vaccines trialed in plants.
C. Influenza split vaccine
• Produced in eggs/cell lines.
D. Rabies vaccine from chick embryo
• Not plant-based.
Q34. The Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used in biotech because:
A. Causes crown gall in plants only
• Wild-type function, not biotech application.
B. Disarmed versions deliver T-DNA carrying desired genes ✅
• Basis of transgenic plant creation.
C. Encodes CRISPR machinery
• Not true.
D. Enhances photosynthesis
• Not related.
Q35. Golden rice is engineered to produce:
A. β-carotene (pro-vitamin A) in endosperm ✅
• Nutritional enhancement against vitamin A deficiency.
B. High lysine content
• That’s “Quality protein maize.”
C. Extra starch yield
• Not the main trait.
D. Bt toxin
• That’s Bt-cotton/maize.
Q36. DNA microarrays are used primarily for:
A. Measuring protein–protein interactions
• That’s protein microarrays.
B. Analyzing genome-wide gene expression by hybridization ✅
• Fluorescent cDNAs hybridize to probes.
C. Imaging whole chromosomes
• That’s FISH.
D. Editing genomes
• Not direct editing.
Q37. In protein purification, anion exchange chromatography binds:
A. Positively charged proteins at low pH
• That’s cation exchange.
B. Negatively charged proteins to positively charged resin ✅
• E.g., DEAE-cellulose.
C. Neutral proteins
• Neutral don’t bind strongly.
D. Proteins based only on size
• That’s gel filtration.
Q38. A bioinformatics database used for protein sequences is:
A. GenBank
• Nucleic acid sequences.
B. UniProt/Swiss-Prot ✅
• Curated protein sequences & annotations.
C. EMBL-EBI
• Holds multiple databases, but not protein-only.
D. RCSB-PDB
• 3D structures, not general sequences.
Q39. BLAST is widely used for:
A. Finding local sequence similarity between query and database ✅
• Aligns DNA/protein to find homologs.
B. Predicting protein folding
• Done by AlphaFold-like tools.
C. Modeling metabolic pathways
• Different tools (KEGG, MetaCyc).
D. Producing primers automatically
• Primer3 is used, not BLAST.
Q40. Metagenomics allows:
A. Culturing each microbe separately
• Not required.
B. Direct sequencing of DNA from environmental samples ✅
• Reveals unculturable microbial diversity.
C. Detecting only viruses
• Detects all DNA/RNA.
D. Measuring metabolite concentration
• That’s metabolomics.
Q41. A bioreactor impeller mainly provides:
A. Mixing and oxygen transfer ✅
• Ensures homogeneous nutrients, gases.
B. Only temperature control
• Controlled separately.
C. Only pH adjustment
• Acid/base probes handle that.
D. Sterility
• Autoclaving ensures sterility.
Q42. A chemostat differs from batch culture because:
A. No fresh medium added
• That’s batch.
B. Continuous inflow of medium at constant dilution rate → steady state ✅
• Enables controlled growth.
C. Culture volume always increasing
• Outflow balances inflow.
D. Nutrients instantly depleted
• Prevented by continuous feed.
Q43. Downstream processing typically begins with:
A. Cell disruption/harvest from bioreactor ✅
• First step after fermentation.
B. Chromatography
• Later step.
C. Protein crystallization
• Final stages.
D. Animal testing
• Not part of DSP.
Q44. A biosafety cabinet (BSC) Class II provides:
A. Only product protection
• Provides both.
B. Both personnel and product protection using HEPA filters ✅
• Most common in biotech labs.
C. No airflow protection
• Wrong.
D. Radiation shielding
• Not its role.
Q45. The Cartagena Protocol relates to:
A. Biosafety in transboundary movement of GMOs ✅
• International treaty under CBD.
B. Patenting of biotech inventions
• That’s TRIPS.
C. Ethical use of animals
• Not Cartagena.
D. Clinical trial regulations
• Human subject research, not GMO safety.
Q46. Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) in biotechnology protect:
A. Only published research papers
• That’s copyright, not patent.
B. Innovations like GMOs, genes, biotech products/processes (under patent law) ✅
• Patent grants exclusivity.
C. Plant breeding alone
• Covered, but IPR broader.
D. Traditional knowledge only
• Different protection (TKDL, GI).
Q47. Bioprospecting refers to:
A. Mining fossil fuels
• Not biological.
B. Exploring biodiversity for novel genes/products with commercial use ✅
• Often leads to new drugs, enzymes.
C. Cloning identical organisms
• That’s somatic cloning.
D. Gene therapy
• Not related.
Q48. A DNA fingerprint in forensic biotechnology is based on:
A. Ribosomal RNA sequences
• Highly conserved, not variable.
B. Variable number tandem repeats (VNTRs)/STRs ✅
• Polymorphic minisatellite regions identify individuals.
C. Introns only
• Not specific.
D. Unique exons
• Not used in fingerprinting.
Q49. Somatic gene therapy differs from germline therapy because:
A. Alters future generations
• That’s germline therapy.
B. Targets only somatic cells; effects not inherited ✅
• Safer, widely accepted ethically.
C. Uses CRISPR exclusively
• Multiple tools possible.
D. Is illegal worldwide
• Somatic therapy is practiced.
Q50. Pharmacogenomics in biotechnology studies:
A. Nutrient uptake in plants
• Not correct.
B. Genetic variation affecting drug response in individuals ✅
• Enables personalized medicine.
C. General drug toxicity
• Broader toxicology, not genomics.
D. Only vaccine production
• Not its focus.
Part 3 — MCQs on Biotechnology (Q51–Q75)
Q51. Which enzyme is widely used in laundry detergents to remove protein stains?
A. Amylase
• Breaks starch, not protein.
B. Protease ✅
• Hydrolyzes protein-based stains (blood, sweat).
C. Lipase
• Removes oily/fat stains.
D. Cellulase
• Prevents fabric graying, not protein removal.
Q52. Streptokinase, a biopharmaceutical, is used clinically to:
A. Lower blood pressure
• Not its main use.
B. Dissolve blood clots (thrombolytic therapy) ✅
• Converts plasminogen to plasmin.
C. Kill bacteria
• It’s not an antibiotic.
D. Act as a painkiller
• No analgesic role.
Q53. Recombinant insulin (Humulin) differs from earlier insulin because it:
A. Is derived from pigs/cows
• That’s animal-sourced insulin.
B. Is produced in bacteria/yeast by recombinant DNA technology ✅
• Human insulin gene expressed in microbes.
C. Contains more side effects
• Safer, fewer immune reactions.
D. Cannot be used in diabetics
• It is the standard therapy.
Q54. Gene therapy vectors most commonly used for stable integration are:
A. Adenoviruses
• Episomal, short-term expression.
B. Retroviruses/lentiviruses ✅
• Integrate into host genome.
C. Baculoviruses
• Used in insect cells.
D. Naked plasmid DNA only
• Low efficiency in vivo.
Q55. CAR-T cell therapy is mainly applied to treat:
A. Autoimmune diseases
• Trials ongoing but not primary.
B. Certain cancers (e.g., B-cell leukemias/lymphomas) ✅
• Engineered T cells target tumor antigens like CD19.
C. Viral infections like HIV
• Still experimental.
D. Genetic blindness
• Not CAR-T based.
Q56. A key advantage of stem cell therapy is:
A. Instant cure without risks
• Risks like tumorigenesis exist.
B. Ability to differentiate into multiple specialized cell types ✅
• Regenerative potential for damaged tissues.
C. No ethical concerns
• Embryonic stem cells raise ethical debates.
D. Complete genome editing
• Editing is a separate process.
Q57. iPSCs (induced pluripotent stem cells) are generated by:
A. Somatic nuclear transfer only
• That’s cloning.
B. Reprogramming somatic cells using transcription factors (e.g., Oct4, Sox2, Klf4, c-Myc) ✅
• Converts fibroblasts → pluripotent state.
C. Direct fertilization
• Not relevant.
D. Exposure to CRISPR
• Not standard iPSC generation.
Q58. Amniocentesis provides genetic information by analyzing:
A. Maternal blood DNA only
• That’s NIPT.
B. Fetal cells/DNA present in amniotic fluid ✅
• Detects chromosomal/genetic disorders.
C. Placental tissue
• That’s chorionic villus sampling (CVS).
D. Neonatal blood
• Done post-birth, not prenatal.
Q59. The ELISPOT assay is primarily used to:
A. Detect DNA mutations
• Not its function.
B. Quantify cytokine-secreting immune cells at single-cell level ✅
• Spots correspond to individual secreting cells.
C. Measure enzyme activity
• Not enzyme-focused.
D. Detect viral load
• qPCR is used for viral quantification.
Q60. Nanoparticles in drug delivery improve therapy mainly by:
A. Making drugs radioactive
• Not true.
B. Enhancing targeted delivery and bioavailability ✅
• Controlled release, reduced toxicity.
C. Changing DNA sequences
• Not their role.
D. Killing bacteria directly always
• Only if antimicrobial nanoparticles are used.
Q61. Liposomes in biotechnology serve as:
A. Artificial vesicles for drug/gene delivery ✅
• Biocompatible carriers fusing with membranes.
B. Chromosome markers
• Not used that way.
C. Protein sequencing tools
• Not relevant.
D. Restriction enzyme substitutes
• Incorrect.
Q62. The Ames test detects:
A. Presence of viruses
• No.
B. Mutagenicity of compounds using histidine-dependent Salmonella ✅
• Measures revertant colonies.
C. Protein concentration
• Not a mutagenicity test.
D. Antibiotic potency
• Not related.
Q63. PCR-based prenatal testing (NIPT) works by analyzing:
A. Father’s DNA
• Not relevant.
B. Cell-free fetal DNA (cffDNA) circulating in maternal blood ✅
• Safe, non-invasive detection.
C. Amniotic fluid
• That’s invasive.
D. Placental biopsy
• That’s CVS.
Q64. MALDI-TOF mass spectrometry in biotech is used for:
A. Nucleic acid amplification
• That’s PCR.
B. Rapid protein/peptide identification by mass/charge analysis ✅
• Key in proteomics.
C. DNA sequencing
• Not direct.
D. Growing microbes
• Not its role.
Q65. DNA vaccines work by:
A. Injecting antibodies directly
• That’s passive immunity.
B. Injecting plasmid DNA encoding antigen → host cells express antigen → immune response ✅
• In vivo antigen expression stimulates immunity.
C. Injecting killed pathogen
• That’s inactivated vaccine.
D. Injecting live attenuated pathogen
• Different strategy.
Q66. An example of a subunit vaccine is:
A. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) vaccine ✅
• Contains purified antigen only.
B. BCG vaccine
• Live attenuated Mycobacterium bovis.
C. Polio oral vaccine
• Live attenuated strains.
D. Rabies vaccine (older type)
• Inactivated whole virus.
Q67. Transgenic animals are often used for:
A. Producing therapeutic proteins (“pharming”), e.g., antithrombin in goat’s milk ✅
• Bioreactor animals.
B. Increasing lifespan always
• Not the main use.
C. Feeding experiments only
• Limited role.
D. Eliminating genetic engineering needs
• They are products of it.
Q68. Xenotransplantation faces major challenges due to:
A. Low organ size match only
• Not the biggest barrier.
B. Risk of immune rejection and transmission of porcine endogenous retroviruses (PERVs) ✅
• Safety and immunological concerns.
C. Ethical use of plants
• Not relevant.
D. Lack of surgical techniques
• Techniques exist, immune issues remain.
Q69. The Cre–loxP system is widely used for:
A. Conditional gene knockout or tissue-specific recombination ✅
• Cre recombinase cuts at loxP sites.
B. DNA sequencing
• Not its role.
C. Antibody production
• Different method.
D. Viral transduction only
• Not restricted to viruses.
Q70. Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) detects:
A. Proteins
• That’s immunofluorescence.
B. Specific DNA/RNA sequences on chromosomes/cells using fluorescent probes ✅
• Visualizes gene location or translocations.
C. Metabolites
• Not applicable.
D. Protein folding
• Not detected.
Q71. CRISPR interference (CRISPRi) differs from CRISPR cutting because:
A. Uses catalytically dead Cas9 (dCas9) to block transcription without DNA cleavage ✅
• Gene silencing without DSB.
B. Always causes mutations
• CRISPRi does not cut DNA.
C. Targets RNA only
• That’s Cas13.
D. Enhances translation
• It represses transcription.
Q72. Bioremediation using engineered microbes aims to:
A. Increase crop yield only
• That’s agricultural biotech.
B. Degrade pollutants (e.g., oil spills, heavy metals) ✅
• Microbes detoxify environment.
C. Produce vaccines
• Not the purpose.
D. Sequence genomes
• Not relevant.
Q73. Bt crops are resistant to pests because they:
A. Express Bacillus thuringiensis Cry toxin, toxic to insect larvae ✅
• Causes gut lysis in pests.
B. Have thicker leaves
• Not the main reason.
C. Contain higher sugar
• Irrelevant.
D. Kill all pests equally
• Specific to target insects.
Q74. Marker-assisted selection (MAS) in plant breeding relies on:
A. Field yield trials only
• Conventional, not marker-assisted.
B. DNA markers tightly linked to desirable traits ✅
• Accelerates breeding accuracy.
C. Random crosses
• Not assisted.
D. Cloning entire genome
• Not necessary.
Q75. Golden Gate Assembly is particularly suited for:
A. Sequencing genomes
• Not assembly.
B. Assembling multiple DNA fragments in a single reaction using Type IIS enzymes ✅
• One-pot, directional, scarless cloning.
C. Protein purification
• Not related.
D. Plant micropropagation
• Different technique.
Part 4 — MCQs on Biotechnology (Q76–Q100)
Q76. Synthetic biology aims to:
A. Only repair DNA mutations
• Too narrow a definition.
B. Design and construct novel biological systems or redesign existing ones ✅
• Engineering principles applied to biology.
C. Sequence entire genomes
• That’s genomics.
D. Only produce vaccines
• One application, not the scope.
Q77. Metabolic engineering in microbes usually targets:
A. Increasing antibiotic resistance
• Not desirable.
B. Redirecting flux through pathways for higher yield of metabolites ✅
• Example: increasing lysine or ethanol production.
C. Random mutagenesis only
• Controlled, rational design is preferred.
D. Limiting cell growth always
• Growth often maintained for production.
Q78. The flux balance analysis (FBA) tool is based on:
A. Protein folding
• That’s structural biology.
B. Stoichiometric models of metabolic networks under steady state ✅
• Predicts optimal pathway flux distribution.
C. Random enzyme kinetics
• Not the basis.
D. Western blot data
• Not used in FBA.
Q79. Transcriptomics refers to:
A. All proteins expressed in a cell
• That’s proteomics.
B. All metabolites
• Metabolomics.
C. Complete set of RNA transcripts produced ✅
• mRNA, rRNA, ncRNA profiles.
D. DNA sequence
• That’s genomics.
Q80. Proteomics typically uses which technique?
A. PCR
• DNA, not protein.
B. 2D gel electrophoresis and mass spectrometry ✅
• Protein separation + identification.
C. ELISA alone
• Targeted, not global proteomics.
D. FISH
• For nucleic acids.
Q81. Metabolomics is most directly studied using:
A. Restriction mapping
• For DNA.
B. NMR spectroscopy or mass spectrometry ✅
• Detects small molecules/metabolites.
C. SDS-PAGE
• For proteins.
D. DNA microarray
• RNA/DNA hybridization, not metabolites.
Q82. RNA-seq provides advantages over microarrays because it:
A. Cannot detect novel transcripts
• Actually, it can.
B. Detects novel transcripts and quantifies expression with high sensitivity ✅
• Not limited to pre-designed probes.
C. Requires radioactivity
• No, sequencing is non-radioactive.
D. Cannot measure isoforms
• It can identify isoforms.
Q83. A biosensor that changes light emission in response to analyte is:
A. Amperometric
• Current-based.
B. Optical biosensor ✅
• Measures fluorescence, luminescence, or absorbance.
C. Calorimetric
• Heat detection.
D. Piezoelectric
• Mass-based frequency change.
Q84. Lab-on-a-chip (microfluidics) is beneficial because it:
A. Requires liters of reagents
• Wrong—uses microliters.
B. Enables miniaturized, rapid, integrated biochemical assays ✅
• Point-of-care diagnostics.
C. Cannot be automated
• Automation is a key advantage.
D. Works only for DNA
• Used for many analytes.
Q85. Bioprinting refers to:
A. Printing DNA sequences on paper
• Wrong.
B. 3D printing of living cells/tissues for regenerative medicine ✅
• Produces organoids/tissue scaffolds.
C. Replicating books with genes
• Not correct.
D. Printing gel bands
• Irrelevant.
Q86. Human Genome Project was completed in:
A. 1995
• First bacterial genome (H. influenzae).
B. 2003 (full draft, public-private consortium) ✅
• International collaboration.
C. 2010
• Post-project era.
D. 1980
• Too early.
Q87. ENCODE project aimed to:
A. Characterize all functional elements of the human genome ✅
• Beyond coding genes—promoters, enhancers, ncRNAs.
B. Sequence the first bacterial genome
• Not ENCODE.
C. Produce transgenic crops
• Not ENCODE.
D. Develop vaccines
• Different area.
Q88. Pharming in biotechnology refers to:
A. Growing organic crops
• Agriculture, not biotech.
B. Producing pharmaceuticals using transgenic plants/animals ✅
• Example: antibodies in tobacco, antithrombin in goats.
C. GM insect control
• Not pharming.
D. Making fertilizers
• Not biotech pharming.
Q89. RNA editing tool that changes specific bases without double-strand breaks:
A. Standard Cas9
• Creates DSBs.
B. CRISPR base editors (e.g., cytidine or adenine deaminase fused to dCas9/Cas9 nickase) ✅
• Converts C→T or A→G precisely.
C. TALENs only
• Cut DNA, no base editing.
D. Restriction enzymes
• No single-base precision.
Q90. Prime editing improves over base editing by:
A. Only deleting DNA
• Wrong.
B. Using Cas9 nickase + reverse transcriptase guided by pegRNA to install any small edits ✅
• Insertions, deletions, substitutions possible.
C. Targeting RNA only
• Works on DNA.
D. Lacking guide RNA
• Still uses guide RNAs.
Q91. Epigenetic biotechnology often uses:
A. DNA sequencing only
• Gives sequence, not modifications.
B. Bisulfite sequencing to map DNA methylation ✅
• Converts unmethylated cytosine → uracil.
C. X-ray crystallography
• For structure, not epigenetics.
D. SDS-PAGE
• For proteins, not methylation.
Q92. DNA barcoding for species identification commonly uses:
A. Hemoglobin gene
• Not conserved.
B. Mitochondrial COI (cytochrome oxidase I) gene ✅
• Highly conserved across animals with species-level variability.
C. Ribosomal RNA only
• Used, but COI is standard in animals.
D. Random STRs
• Not universal.
Q93. Clinical trials Phase III are mainly designed to:
A. Test in small animals
• Preclinical phase.
B. Confirm efficacy and monitor side effects in large patient populations ✅
• Thousands of patients, multicentric.
C. First-in-human safety testing
• That’s Phase I.
D. Small-scale dose finding
• Phase II.
Q94. Biostatistics in qPCR usually reports results as:
A. Agarose gel bands
• That’s qualitative.
B. Ct (cycle threshold) values normalized to reference genes ✅
• Quantitative expression analysis.
C. Western blot intensity
• Protein quantification, not qPCR.
D. Restriction map
• Irrelevant.
Q95. Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) ensure:
A. Quality, safety, and consistency in pharmaceutical/biotech production ✅
• Mandatory for drug approval.
B. Faster but unsafe production
• Opposite of GMP.
C. Marketing approval
• Separate regulatory step.
D. Ethical review only
• Different process.
Q96. Bioethics in biotechnology concerns:
A. Moral, legal, and social implications of biotech (e.g., cloning, GMOs, gene editing) ✅
• Balances science with responsibility.
B. Only lab safety
• That’s biosafety, narrower.
C. Patent filing
• IPR, not ethics.
D. Sequencing techniques
• Technical, not ethical.
Q97. Stem cell clinical use requires strict regulation because:
A. They never work
• They do work.
B. Risk of tumor formation, immune rejection, and ethical issues ✅
• Safety and ethics central to regulation.
C. Always identical to organ transplant
• Different concept.
D. No patient consent needed
• Consent is mandatory.
Q98. Gene drives in population control are designed to:
A. Prevent genetic inheritance
• Wrong.
B. Bias inheritance of a gene to spread traits rapidly through populations ✅
• CRISPR-based drives in mosquitoes for malaria control.
C. Work only in humans
• Ethical issues prevent human use.
D. Prevent evolution
• Not possible.
Q99. Ex vivo gene therapy differs from in vivo because:
A. Genes are never delivered
• Incorrect.
B. Cells are modified outside the body and reintroduced ✅
• Example: CAR-T therapy.
C. Always uses viruses only
• Can use non-viral vectors too.
D. Is less controlled than in vivo
• Actually offers more control.
Q100. A major future direction in biotechnology is:
A. Integration of AI with omics data for personalized medicine and synthetic biology ✅
• AI-driven designs and predictions are the next frontier.
B. Abandoning genetic engineering
• Contradicts reality.
C. Only focusing on plants
• Too narrow.
D. Avoiding bioinformatics
• Bioinformatics is essential.
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