Genomics MCQs — Part 1 (Q1–Q25)

Q1. Genomics is the study of:

A. A single gene only
B. Proteins expressed in a cell
C. The complete set of genes and their functions ✅
D. DNA mutations alone

A: One gene = genetics, not genomics.
B: Proteins = proteomics.
C: Genomics = entire genome structure, function, mapping, and interactions.
D: Mutations are part of genomics, not its full scope.

Q2. The first organism to have its complete genome sequenced was:

A. Haemophilus influenzae ✅
B. Escherichia coli
C. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
D. Arabidopsis thaliana

A: H. influenzae (1995) was the first fully sequenced free-living organism.
B: E. coli genome followed later.
C: Yeast = first eukaryote sequenced.
D: Arabidopsis = first plant sequenced.

Q3. The Human Genome Project was completed in:

A. 1990
B. 2000
C. 2003 ✅
D. 2010

A: Project started in 1990.
B: Draft published in 2000.
C: Full reference sequence published in 2003.
D: 2010 marks further refinements, not completion.

Q4. Which sequencing method was used in the original Human Genome Project?

A. Illumina sequencing
B. Nanopore sequencing
C. Sanger sequencing (dideoxy method) ✅
D. PacBio sequencing

A/B/D: Newer NGS technologies.
C: Sanger sequencing was the gold standard for HGP.

Q5. A genome refers to:

A. All proteins in an organism
B. All genetic material (DNA) in an organism ✅
C. Only coding genes
D. Only mitochondrial DNA

A: All proteins = proteome.
B: Genome = entire DNA content (coding + noncoding).
C: Coding genes are a small fraction.
D: mtDNA is part of the genome, not the whole.

Q6. Which of the following is a model organism widely used in genomics?

A. Cow (Bos taurus)
B. Dog (Canis lupus familiaris)
C. Fruit fly (Drosophila melanogaster) ✅
D. Elephant

A/B/D: Important animals but not classic genomic models.
C: Drosophila is a key genetic model, genome sequenced early.

Q7. Which sequencing approach produces short reads but very high throughput?

A. Sanger sequencing
B. Illumina sequencing ✅
C. PacBio SMRT sequencing
D. Nanopore sequencing

A: Produces longer but low-throughput reads.
B: Illumina = short (~150–300 bp) reads, massively parallel.
C/D: Produce long reads, less throughput than Illumina.

Q8. The study of the collection of microbial genomes in an environment is:

A. Genomics
B. Transcriptomics
C. Metagenomics ✅
D. Proteomics

A: Refers to an individual genome.
B: Transcriptomics = RNA expression.
C: Metagenomics = sequencing DNA from microbial communities directly.
D: Protein-level study.

Q9. Which database is the largest public repository of nucleotide sequences?

A. UniProt
B. GenBank ✅
C. PDB
D. KEGG

A: UniProt = proteins.
B: GenBank (NCBI) is the primary nucleotide sequence database.
C: PDB = protein structures.
D: KEGG = pathways.

Q10. Comparative genomics primarily involves:

A. Sequencing mRNA
B. Comparing genomes across species to study evolution and function ✅
C. Studying protein–protein interactions
D. Cloning DNA

A: That’s transcriptomics.
B: Comparative genomics highlights similarities/differences across species.
C: Proteomics.
D: Not comparative genomics.

Q11. Which technique separates DNA fragments by size?

A. PCR
B. Gel electrophoresis ✅
C. Hybridization
D. Mass spectrometry

A: Amplifies DNA, doesn’t separate.
B: Gel electrophoresis separates DNA by size/charge.
C: Detects specific sequences.
D: For proteins/metabolites.

Q12. Which is NOT a next-generation sequencing (NGS) platform?

A. Illumina
B. PacBio
C. Northern blotting ✅
D. Oxford Nanopore

A/B/D: NGS platforms.
C: Northern blot = RNA detection, not sequencing.

Q13. Whole exome sequencing focuses on:

A. Entire genome
B. Protein-coding regions (exons) ✅
C. Introns only
D. Regulatory sequences only

A: That’s WGS.
B: Exome sequencing targets exons (~1–2% of genome).
C/D: Not focus of WES.

Q14. Which feature distinguishes prokaryotic genomes?

A. Presence of introns
B. Circular chromosomes and operons ✅
C. Linear DNA with histones
D. Large noncoding regions

A: Rare in prokaryotes.
B: Prokaryotes → usually circular chromosomes, genes in operons.
C: Eukaryotes.
D: Prokaryotes have compact genomes, little noncoding DNA.

Q15. The size of the human haploid genome is approximately:

A. 1 million bp
B. 500 million bp
C. 3 billion bp ✅
D. 100 billion bp

A/B: Too small.
C: Human haploid genome ~3.2 billion base pairs.
D: Far too large.

Q16. Which term describes variations in DNA sequence among individuals?

A. Transcriptome
B. Polymorphism ✅
C. Proteome
D. Epigenome

A: All expressed RNA.
B: Polymorphisms = DNA sequence variations (e.g., SNPs, microsatellites).
C: Protein set.
D: Epigenome = chemical modifications.

Q17. A single nucleotide change in DNA is called:

A. Deletion
B. Insertion
C. Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNP) ✅
D. Translocation

A/B/D: Structural changes.
C: SNP = most common genetic variation.

Q18. Which technology allows real-time sequencing of long DNA fragments?

A. Illumina
B. Nanopore sequencing ✅
C. RFLP
D. Northern blot

A: Produces short reads.
B: Nanopore passes DNA through a pore → real-time signal for long reads.
C/D: Older methods, not sequencing.

Q19. A transcriptome is:

A. All DNA in genome
B. All RNA molecules expressed in a cell ✅
C. All proteins in a cell
D. All metabolites

A: Genome = DNA.
B: Transcriptome = mRNA, rRNA, tRNA, noncoding RNAs.
C: Proteome.
D: Metabolome.

Q20. The CRISPR–Cas9 system is originally derived from:

A. Eukaryotic cells
B. Bacterial adaptive immune system ✅
C. Plant chloroplasts
D. Viral RNA genomes

A/C/D: Not correct.
B: Bacteria use CRISPR to recognize and cut viral DNA.

Q21. The ENCODE project aims to:

A. Sequence the entire human genome
B. Identify all functional elements in the genome ✅
C. Compare genomes across species
D. Build phylogenetic trees

A: Done by HGP.
B: ENCODE (Encyclopedia of DNA Elements) characterizes functional parts of genome.
C/D: Not main aim.

Q22. Which technique is used to detect gene expression profiles genome-wide?

A. PCR
B. RNA sequencing (RNA-Seq) ✅
C. Restriction mapping
D. Gel electrophoresis

A: Amplifies a few genes.
B: RNA-Seq sequences entire transcriptome to study expression.
C/D: Not expression analysis methods.

Q23. A microarray is used for:

A. Protein sequencing
B. Monitoring expression of thousands of genes simultaneously ✅
C. DNA fragmentation
D. Enzyme kinetics

A/C/D: Not microarray applications.
B: DNA microarrays detect hybridization patterns of gene expression.

Q24. Which organism was the first eukaryote sequenced completely?

A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae (yeast) ✅
B. Arabidopsis thaliana
C. Caenorhabditis elegans
D. Drosophila melanogaster

A: Yeast (1996) was first eukaryote genome fully sequenced.
B: First plant.
C: First multicellular animal.
D: Fruit fly sequenced later.

Q25. Which technology allows single-cell genomics?

A. Sanger sequencing
B. Next-generation sequencing with microfluidics ✅
C. Western blotting
D. RFLP

A: Not sensitive enough for single-cell.
B: NGS + microfluidics isolate DNA/RNA from individual cells for analysis.
C: Protein detection, not DNA.
D: Outdated, bulk DNA only.

Genomics MCQs — Part 2 (Q26–Q50)

Q26. Which term describes the complete set of proteins encoded by a genome?

A. Genomics
B. Transcriptomics
C. Proteomics ✅
D. Metabolomics

A: Study of genomes.
B: Study of RNAs.
C: Proteomics = all proteins expressed by the genome.
D: Metabolomics = small molecules.

Q27. A genome-wide association study (GWAS) identifies:

A. Protein folding pathways
B. Genetic variants associated with diseases/traits ✅
C. Gene expression levels
D. Epigenetic modifications

A: Not the purpose of GWAS.
B: GWAS compares genomes across many individuals to link SNPs with traits.
C: Expression = transcriptomics.
D: Epigenomics studies modifications.

Q28. Which technology allows simultaneous editing of multiple genes?

A. Zinc-finger nucleases
B. TALENs
C. CRISPR–Cas9 ✅
D. Southern blotting

A/B: Gene editing tools but less efficient.
C: CRISPR can target multiple sites with guide RNAs.
D: Not a gene editing tool.

Q29. Which type of genomics focuses on the evolutionary relationships of genomes?

A. Structural genomics
B. Functional genomics
C. Comparative genomics ✅
D. Pharmacogenomics

A: Studies 3D protein structures.
B: Studies gene function.
C: Comparative genomics compares species to study evolution.
D: Focuses on drug response.

Q30. The process of determining the full set of RNA transcripts under specific conditions is:

A. Genomics
B. Transcriptomics ✅
C. Metabolomics
D. Epigenomics

A: Study of DNA.
B: Transcriptomics identifies and quantifies RNAs.
C: Small molecules.
D: DNA methylation/histone modification.

Q31. Which genomic technique is used to study DNA–protein interactions?

A. RNA-Seq
B. ChIP-Seq (Chromatin Immunoprecipitation Sequencing) ✅
C. Whole exome sequencing
D. Southern blot

A: RNA expression.
B: ChIP-Seq identifies binding sites of transcription factors/histones.
C: Exons only.
D: DNA fragment analysis.

Q32. Which method is used for physical mapping of genomes?

A. GWAS
B. Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) ✅
C. RNA-Seq
D. Western blot

A: Statistical association study.
B: FISH uses fluorescent probes to locate genes on chromosomes.
C: RNA analysis.
D: Protein detection.

Q33. The CRISPR spacer sequences in bacteria are derived from:

A. Host chromosomes
B. Viral DNA fragments ✅
C. Ribosomal RNA genes
D. Plasmids only

A: Not host DNA.
B: Bacteria capture viral DNA fragments to build immunity.
C: Not involved in CRISPR.
D: Some spacers may be plasmid-derived, but mainly viral.

Q34. Which is NOT a feature of eukaryotic genomes?

A. Introns
B. Repetitive DNA
C. Operons ✅
D. Histone-bound DNA

A/B/D: Found in eukaryotes.
C: Operons (multiple genes under one promoter) are prokaryotic features.

Q35. Which sequencing approach is ideal for detecting structural variants and long repeats?

A. Illumina sequencing
B. PacBio SMRT sequencing ✅
C. Northern blotting
D. RFLP

A: Illumina has short reads → not ideal.
B: PacBio produces very long reads → good for complex genome regions.
C/D: Not sequencing methods.

Q36. The study of all chemical modifications of DNA and histones without changing sequence is:

A. Genomics
B. Epigenomics ✅
C. Transcriptomics
D. Structural genomics

A: Study of DNA itself.
B: Epigenomics studies methylation, acetylation, etc.
C/D: Not relevant here.

Q37. Which of the following is used to detect copy number variations (CNVs)?

A. PCR
B. Comparative Genomic Hybridization (CGH) ✅
C. Gel electrophoresis
D. Mass spectrometry

A: PCR detects small changes.
B: CGH identifies large-scale CNVs by comparing fluorescence ratios.
C: Limited resolution.
D: Not for DNA.

Q38. Which technique is used for analyzing protein–protein interactions?

A. RNA-Seq
B. Yeast two-hybrid system ✅
C. DNA sequencing
D. Western blot

A: RNA profiling.
B: Yeast two-hybrid detects interactions between proteins.
C: DNA study.
D: Protein presence, not interaction.

Q39. Which genome-editing system uses programmable DNA-binding domains fused to nucleases?

A. TALENs ✅
B. CRISPR
C. Microarrays
D. RNAi

A: TALENs (Transcription Activator-Like Effector Nucleases) edit DNA using engineered domains.
B: CRISPR uses guide RNAs.
C/D: Not editing tools.

Q40. Which human chromosome is the smallest in size?

A. Chromosome 1
B. Chromosome 7
C. Chromosome 13
D. Chromosome 21 ✅

A: Largest.
B/C: Intermediate.
D: Chromosome 21 is the smallest autosome.

Q41. Which public database specifically stores protein structures?

A. GenBank
B. KEGG
C. Protein Data Bank (PDB) ✅
D. ENSEMBL

A: DNA sequences.
B: Pathways.
C: PDB houses 3D protein structures.
D: Genome annotation database.

Q42. Which project aimed at sequencing the genomes of 1000 individuals to study human variation?

A. ENCODE
B. Human Genome Project
C. 1000 Genomes Project ✅
D. HapMap Project

A: Functional elements.
B: Reference genome.
C: 1000 Genomes identified global genetic variation.
D: HapMap mapped haplotype blocks, smaller scale.

Q43. Which genomic element makes up nearly 50% of the human genome?

A. Protein-coding genes
B. Introns
C. Transposable elements (repeats) ✅
D. Ribosomal RNA genes

A: Only ~1–2%.
B: Introns ~25%.
C: Transposons and repeats dominate genome content.
D: rRNA genes are tiny fraction.

Q44. Which sequencing method directly measures nucleotide incorporation by light emission?

A. Illumina
B. Pyrosequencing ✅
C. Sanger sequencing
D. Nanopore

A: Detects fluorescently labeled nucleotides.
B: Pyrosequencing detects pyrophosphate release → light emission.
C: Chain-termination with dye labels.
D: Current changes in nanopores.

Q45. Which is NOT part of functional genomics?

A. Gene expression profiling
B. RNA interference
C. DNA replication origin mapping ✅
D. Knockout studies

A/B/D: Used to study gene function.
C: Replication origins are structural genomics, not functional.

Q46. Which project catalogued common genetic variants (SNPs) in humans?

A. ENCODE
B. HapMap Project ✅
C. 1000 Genomes Project
D. FANTOM Project

A: Functional annotation.
B: HapMap created SNP haplotype maps.
C: 1000 Genomes expanded on HapMap.
D: FANTOM focused on transcriptomes.

Q47. Which sequencing platform produces the longest reads?

A. Illumina
B. Pyrosequencing
C. Oxford Nanopore ✅
D. Sanger sequencing

A: Short reads.
B: Short–medium reads.
C: Nanopore produces ultra-long reads (>1 Mb).
D: Sanger ~800–1000 bp max.

Q48. Which is the major advantage of whole genome sequencing (WGS) over exome sequencing?

A. Faster
B. Covers coding and noncoding regions ✅
C. Cheaper
D. Requires less DNA

A: WGS takes longer.
B: WGS includes all DNA, not just exons.
C: Exome is cheaper.
D: Both need similar amounts.

Q49. Which omics field studies all small molecules and metabolites in a system?

A. Genomics
B. Proteomics
C. Metabolomics ✅
D. Epigenomics

A: DNA.
B: Proteins.
C: Metabolomics = study of metabolites (sugars, lipids, etc.).
D: DNA modifications.

Q50. Which technique knocks down gene expression post-transcriptionally?

A. CRISPR
B. TALEN
C. RNA interference (RNAi) ✅
D. Northern blot

A/B: DNA editing.
C: RNAi uses siRNAs/miRNAs to silence gene expression.
D: RNA detection.

Genomics MCQs — Part 3 (Q51–Q75)

Q51. Which genome sequencing approach was pioneered by Craig Venter’s group?

A. Hierarchical shotgun sequencing
B. Whole-genome shotgun sequencing ✅
C. Clone-by-clone sequencing
D. Exome sequencing

A/C: Used in Human Genome Project.
B: Venter used whole-genome shotgun sequencing to assemble genomes quickly.
D: Targets exons only.

Q52. Which technology uses single-molecule real-time sequencing?

A. Illumina
B. PacBio SMRT sequencing ✅
C. Nanopore sequencing
D. Sanger sequencing

A: Short-read sequencing.
B: PacBio SMRT = long reads via real-time polymerase activity detection.
C: Nanopore is different single-molecule tech.
D: Sanger = chain termination.

Q53. Which region of the genome is most conserved across species?

A. Introns
B. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) genes ✅
C. Transposable elements
D. Microsatellites

A/C/D: Variable.
B: rRNA genes are highly conserved → phylogenetic studies.

Q54. Which method can study chromosome conformation in 3D space?

A. RNA-Seq
B. Hi-C sequencing ✅
C. Western blot
D. Exome sequencing

A: RNA analysis.
B: Hi-C captures chromatin interactions, revealing 3D structure.
C: Protein detection.
D: Only coding regions.

Q55. Which genome editing method uses programmable zinc-finger proteins?

A. TALENs
B. Zinc-finger nucleases (ZFNs) ✅
C. CRISPR
D. RNAi

A: Different engineered system.
B: ZFNs were early programmable nucleases.
C: RNA-guided.
D: Post-transcriptional silencing.

Q56. Which database is specifically dedicated to human gene and disease associations?

A. PDB
B. OMIM (Online Mendelian Inheritance in Man) ✅
C. GenBank
D. KEGG

A: Protein structures.
B: OMIM catalogs human genes and genetic disorders.
C: Sequence data.
D: Pathways.

Q57. Which is a key application of pharmacogenomics?

A. Forensic fingerprinting
B. Personalized medicine based on genetic variation ✅
C. Food production improvement
D. Climate change studies

A/C/D: Not pharmacogenomics.
B: Pharmacogenomics tailors drug treatment to genetic profiles.

Q58. Which project produced the first complete map of human haplotypes?

A. 1000 Genomes Project
B. HapMap Project ✅
C. ENCODE Project
D. FANTOM Project

A: Larger global variation study.
B: HapMap mapped common SNP haplotypes.
C: Functional DNA elements.
D: Transcriptome analysis.

Q59. Which tool is used to compare DNA or protein sequences computationally?

A. FASTA format
B. BLAST (Basic Local Alignment Search Tool) ✅
C. PCR
D. SDS-PAGE

A: A file format, not tool.
B: BLAST finds sequence similarity in databases.
C/D: Lab methods, not bioinformatics.

Q60. Which describes the study of gene expression changes without altering DNA sequence?

A. Genomics
B. Epigenomics ✅
C. Proteomics
D. Metabolomics

A: DNA-based.
B: Epigenomics = methylation, histone modification regulating expression.
C/D: Not epigenetic.

Q61. Which sequencing method relies on detection of pH changes?

A. Illumina
B. Ion Torrent sequencing ✅
C. Nanopore
D. PacBio

A: Fluorescent detection.
B: Ion Torrent detects H⁺ ions released during nucleotide incorporation.
C: Current detection.
D: Light emission.

Q62. Which project systematically generated knockout mice for gene studies?

A. ENCODE
B. International Knockout Mouse Project (KOMP) ✅
C. FANTOM Project
D. Human Genome Project

A: Functional DNA elements.
B: KOMP created knockout mice to study gene functions.
C: Focused on transcriptomes.
D: Human reference genome.

Q63. Which statistical concept is essential in GWAS to correct false positives?

A. Chi-square test
B. Multiple testing correction (e.g., Bonferroni, FDR) ✅
C. T-test only
D. Regression coefficient

A: Used but not enough.
B: GWAS tests millions of SNPs → need multiple testing correction.
C/D: Partial roles.

Q64. Which technique can study methylation patterns genome-wide?

A. RNA-Seq
B. Bisulfite sequencing ✅
C. Northern blot
D. FISH

A: RNA profiling.
B: Bisulfite converts unmethylated cytosines → uracil, enabling methylation analysis.
C/D: Not for methylation.

Q65. Which is the major advantage of Nanopore sequencing?

A. Short read accuracy
B. Ultra-long reads and portability ✅
C. No error rates
D. Cheapest method

A: Illumina better for accuracy.
B: Nanopore generates reads >1 Mb and works on portable devices.
C: Has higher error rates.
D: Cost is reducing but not always cheapest.

Q66. Which of the following is NOT a type of noncoding RNA?

A. tRNA
B. rRNA
C. mRNA ✅
D. miRNA

A/B/D: Noncoding RNAs.
C: mRNA codes for proteins.

Q67. Which is a hallmark of eukaryotic gene regulation?

A. Operons
B. Alternative splicing ✅
C. Polycistronic mRNA
D. Simple promoter architecture

A/C: Found in prokaryotes.
B: Eukaryotic pre-mRNA can be spliced differently → multiple proteins.
D: Eukaryotic promoters are complex.

Q68. Which technique is best for measuring gene expression in real-time?

A. Northern blot
B. qRT-PCR (quantitative reverse transcriptase PCR) ✅
C. Microarrays only
D. SDS-PAGE

A: Detects RNA but not quantitative in real time.
B: qRT-PCR measures mRNA levels dynamically.
C: Semi-quantitative.
D: Protein detection.

Q69. Which human chromosome carries the highest number of genes?

A. Chromosome 1 ✅
B. Chromosome 21
C. Chromosome Y
D. Chromosome X

A: Chromosome 1 is the largest, ~2,000+ genes.
B: Fewest autosomal genes.
C: Very few genes (~70).
D: Moderate (~1,000).

Q70. Which field focuses on studying interactions between genes and drugs?

A. Genomics
B. Pharmacogenomics ✅
C. Proteomics
D. Epigenomics

A/C/D: Different domains.
B: Pharmacogenomics tailors medicine to genetic variation.

Q71. Which feature of mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) makes it useful in forensics?

A. Large genome size
B. Maternal inheritance and high copy number ✅
C. Recombination
D. Polycistronic transcription

A: mtDNA is small (~16 kb).
B: mtDNA is maternally inherited and abundant in cells → useful in degraded samples.
C: mtDNA does not recombine.
D: Polycistronic transcripts are not the key reason.

Q72. Which organism’s genome revealed first evidence of alternative splicing in eukaryotes?

A. Yeast
B. Adenovirus ✅
C. Drosophila
D. Arabidopsis

A: Yeast splicing is rare.
B: Adenovirus genome studies discovered alternative splicing in 1977.
C/D: Splicing is common but not where it was first shown.

Q73. Which is NOT an application of metagenomics?

A. Microbiome studies
B. Discovery of new enzymes
C. Identifying unculturable microbes
D. Protein structure prediction ✅

A/B/C: All applications.
D: Protein structure prediction is bioinformatics, not metagenomics.

Q74. Which sequencing technique uses fluorescently labeled reversible terminators?

A. Nanopore
B. Illumina sequencing ✅
C. PacBio
D. Sanger

A: Current-based detection.
B: Illumina uses reversible fluorescent terminators.
C: Single-molecule real-time sequencing.
D: Dye terminators, not reversible.

Q75. Which approach integrates genomics, transcriptomics, and proteomics to study systems?

A. Exome sequencing
B. Systems biology ✅
C. Pharmacogenomics
D. Structural genomics

A: Only exons.
B: Systems biology integrates multi-omics to understand biological systems.
C/D: Focused on drugs or structures.

Excellent 🙌 Let’s wrap up with the final Part 4 (Q76–Q100) of the Genomics MCQs set. Each MCQ has four options, the correct answer marked, and clear explanations under each option.

Genomics MCQs — Part 4 (Q76–Q100)

Q76. Which sequencing technology directly detects DNA bases by passing them through nanopores?

A. PacBio SMRT sequencing
B. Oxford Nanopore sequencing ✅
C. Illumina sequencing
D. Sanger sequencing

A: PacBio uses polymerase activity.
B: Nanopore measures electrical current changes as DNA passes through pores.
C: Short-read fluorescence-based.
D: Chain termination sequencing.

Q77. Which bioinformatics tool is most commonly used to visualize phylogenetic trees?

A. BLAST
B. MEGA (Molecular Evolutionary Genetics Analysis) ✅
C. KEGG
D. FASTA

A: Sequence alignment.
B: MEGA is widely used for phylogenetics.
C: Pathways database.
D: File format.

Q78. Which technique allows genome-wide analysis of protein–DNA interactions?

A. Northern blot
B. ChIP-Seq ✅
C. PCR
D. SDS-PAGE

A/C/D: Not genome-wide binding studies.
B: ChIP-Seq identifies DNA sequences bound by proteins (e.g., transcription factors).

Q79. Which region of human genome contains the highest GC content?

A. Introns
B. CpG islands ✅
C. Microsatellites
D. Mitochondrial genome

A/C/D: Variable GC levels.
B: CpG islands are GC-rich regions near gene promoters.

Q80. Which organism’s genome was first fully sequenced among eukaryotes?

A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae (yeast) ✅
B. Drosophila melanogaster
C. Arabidopsis thaliana
D. Caenorhabditis elegans

A: Yeast genome was sequenced in 1996.
B: First animal with complex genome sequenced.
C: First plant genome sequenced.
D: First multicellular animal genome sequenced.

Q81. Which enzyme is essential in generating cDNA for transcriptome analysis?

A. DNA polymerase I
B. Taq polymerase
C. Reverse transcriptase ✅
D. RNA polymerase

A/B/D: Not for RNA → DNA conversion.
C: Reverse transcriptase synthesizes cDNA from RNA.

Q82. The major purpose of comparative genomics is to:

A. Clone genes
B. Identify evolutionary conservation and functional elements ✅
C. Sequence proteins
D. Study RNA folding

A: Not the main aim.
B: Comparative genomics highlights conserved DNA regions and functions.
C/D: Not comparative genomics.

Q83. Which is a first-generation sequencing method?

A. Illumina
B. PacBio
C. Sanger sequencing ✅
D. Nanopore

A/B/D: All NGS or third-generation.
C: Sanger is the first widely used sequencing method.

Q84. Which is the first plant genome to be sequenced?

A. Rice
B. Maize
C. Arabidopsis thaliana ✅
D. Wheat

A/B/D: Sequenced later.
C: Arabidopsis, model plant genome sequenced in 2000.

Q85. Which analysis predicts protein-coding genes in genomes?

A. RNA-Seq
B. Gene annotation ✅
C. Proteomics
D. Epigenomics

A: Measures expression.
B: Annotation identifies coding sequences, start/stop codons, exons.
C/D: Not prediction methods.

Q86. Which is a common application of single-cell genomics?

A. Protein crystallization
B. Studying tumor heterogeneity ✅
C. Food microbiology
D. Climate change studies

A/C/D: Not typical.
B: Single-cell sequencing uncovers genetic variation within tumors.

Q87. Which is the smallest genome among humans, yeast, and bacteria?

A. Human genome
B. Yeast genome
C. Bacterial genome ✅
D. All are same size

A: 3 billion bp.
B: ~12 million bp.
C: Bacteria often have ~1–5 million bp genomes.
D: False.

Q88. Which of the following is a long noncoding RNA (lncRNA)?

A. tRNA
B. rRNA
C. Xist ✅
D. miRNA

A/B/D: Other noncoding RNAs.
C: Xist is an lncRNA involved in X-chromosome inactivation.

Q89. Which NGS technology is known for highest per-base accuracy?

A. Nanopore
B. PacBio
C. Illumina sequencing ✅
D. Sanger

A/B: Higher error rates.
C: Illumina short reads have >99.9% accuracy.
D: Sanger is highly accurate but lower throughput.

Q90. Which organism was the first multicellular animal genome sequenced?

A. Drosophila melanogaster
B. Caenorhabditis elegans ✅
C. Xenopus laevis
D. Mouse

A: Sequenced later.
B: C. elegans genome completed in 1998.
C/D: Larger genomes sequenced later.

Q91. Which technology is ideal for analyzing repetitive regions in human genome?

A. Illumina
B. PacBio/Nanopore (long-read sequencing) ✅
C. Microarrays
D. qPCR

A: Short reads fail in repeats.
B: Long-read sequencing spans repeats effectively.
C/D: Not suited for repeats.

Q92. Which type of genetic variation involves variable numbers of short tandem repeats?

A. SNP
B. Microsatellites (STRs) ✅
C. CNV
D. Indel

A: Single nucleotide.
B: STRs = repeating 2–6 bp sequences → forensic DNA typing.
C: Larger duplications/deletions.
D: Small insertions/deletions.

Q93. Which study integrates genomics with population genetics to study adaptation?

A. Transcriptomics
B. Population genomics ✅
C. Structural genomics
D. Proteomics

A/C/D: Other domains.
B: Population genomics studies genome-wide variation within populations.

Q94. Which project aimed to sequence all protein-coding genes of humans?

A. Human Genome Project
B. Human Genome Project (with subsequent gene annotation) ✅
C. HapMap
D. ENCODE

B: HGP sequenced full genome, followed by annotation of ~20,000–25,000 genes.
C/D: Different goals.

Q95. Which gene editing method uses short RNA molecules to guide DNA cutting?

A. TALEN
B. ZFN
C. CRISPR-Cas9 ✅
D. RNAi

A/B: Protein-based nucleases.
C: CRISPR uses sgRNA + Cas9 nuclease.
D: Silences RNA, not DNA.

Q96. Which sequencing project revealed the human gut microbiome composition?

A. HapMap Project
B. ENCODE Project
C. Human Microbiome Project (HMP) ✅
D. 1000 Genomes

A/B/D: Not microbiome focused.
C: HMP characterized human-associated microbes using metagenomics.

Q97. Which computational method is used for genome assembly?

A. Alignment algorithms
B. De Bruijn graphs ✅
C. BLAST
D. GWAS

A: For comparisons.
B: De Bruijn graphs reconstruct genomes from short sequencing reads.
C/D: Not assembly tools.

Q98. Which gene is associated with X-chromosome inactivation?

A. SRY
B. Xist ✅
C. BRCA1
D. p53

A: Male sex determination.
B: Xist lncRNA coats inactive X → silencing.
C: Cancer gene.
D: Tumor suppressor.

Q99. Which sequencing approach can directly detect modified bases (like methylation)?

A. Illumina
B. Nanopore/PacBio long-read sequencing ✅
C. Sanger
D. RNA-Seq

A/C: Cannot directly detect modifications.
B: Nanopore and PacBio can detect DNA modifications in raw signals.
D: RNA sequencing only.

Q100. Approximately how many protein-coding genes does the human genome contain?

A. 100,000
B. 50,000
C. ~20,000–25,000 ✅
D. 200,000

A/D: Early overestimates.
B: Too high.
C: Human genome encodes ~20k–25k protein-coding genes.

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