Virology – Study of Viruses MCQs
Virology – Study of Viruses MCQs
These are structured for school boards (CBSE/ICSE), national entrance tests (NEET, CUET, CSIR-NET, GATE, DBT-BET JRF), medical licensing (USMLE, PLAB, AMC), and international exams (SAT Bio, GRE Bio, BMAT, IMAT).
Part 1 — Virology MCQs (Q1–Q25)
Q1. Virology is the study of:
A. Bacteria
• That is bacteriology.
B. Fungi
• Mycology.
C. Viruses and virus-like particles ✅
• Focuses on structure, replication, pathogenesis.
D. Protozoa
• Parasitology.
Q2. Viruses are considered:
A. Fully living organisms
• Lack metabolism, so no.
B. Non-living chemicals
• They can replicate inside cells.
C. Acellular obligate intracellular parasites ✅
• They require a host cell to reproduce.
D. Free-living microbes
• Not possible.
Q3. The genetic material of viruses can be:
A. Only DNA
• Wrong.
B. Only RNA
• Wrong.
C. Either DNA or RNA, single- or double-stranded ✅
• Defines virus families.
D. DNA + RNA together always
• Not in natural viruses.
Q4. Which virus family has double-stranded DNA genome?
A. Retroviridae
• Single-stranded RNA.
B. Herpesviridae (e.g., HSV, CMV) ✅
• Enveloped dsDNA viruses.
C. Picornaviridae
• +ssRNA.
D. Orthomyxoviridae
• Segmented –ssRNA.
Q5. Which virus has a segmented genome?
A. Herpesvirus
• Non-segmented dsDNA.
B. Influenza virus (Orthomyxoviridae) ✅
• 8 RNA segments, reassortment possible.
C. HIV
• Retrovirus, non-segmented RNA.
D. Adenovirus
• dsDNA, linear.
Q6. Viral capsid symmetry types include:
A. Cubic only
• Wrong.
B. Icosahedral, helical, complex ✅
• Examples: Adenovirus (icosahedral), Influenza (helical), Poxvirus (complex).
C. Spiral only
• Not standard term.
D. Rectangular
• Not correct.
Q7. The smallest known viruses infect:
A. Animals
• Not smallest.
B. Plants
• Some small ones exist.
C. Bacteria (bacteriophages like MS2, ΦX174) ✅
• Some <30 nm in size.
D. Fungi
• Not smallest.
Q8. Viral envelopes are derived from:
A. Bacterial cell wall
• Not possible.
B. Host cell membrane during budding ✅
• Contain viral glycoproteins for entry.
C. Viral ribosomes
• Viruses lack ribosomes.
D. Viral DNA
• Not possible.
Q9. The Baltimore classification of viruses is based on:
A. Host species
• Not classification basis.
B. Nature of genome and replication strategy ✅
• DNA vs RNA, single vs double-stranded, reverse transcription.
C. Capsid shape
• Secondary feature.
D. Symptoms in host
• Not systematic.
Q10. Retroviruses replicate through:
A. Direct DNA replication
• Not correct.
B. RNA polymerase
• Not main.
C. Reverse transcription of RNA into DNA by reverse transcriptase ✅
• Provirus integrates into host genome.
D. Lysogenic conversion only
• Not all retroviruses.
Q11. Which enzyme is packaged in HIV virions?
A. DNA polymerase
• Host enzyme.
B. Reverse transcriptase ✅
• Converts RNA → DNA.
C. Lysozyme
• Bacteria have lysozyme, some phages encode endolysin.
D. RNA polymerase II
• Host nuclear enzyme.
Q12. The viral eclipse phase refers to:
A. Virus entry into eclipse
• Misleading.
B. Time when viral particles are not detectable (after entry, before new virion assembly) ✅
• Genome replication/protein synthesis occurs.
C. Cell lysis
• Later stage.
D. Integration only
• Not universal.
Q13. Bacteriophage life cycles include:
A. Binary fission
• Bacteria, not viruses.
B. Lytic cycle (host lysis) and lysogenic cycle (prophage integration) ✅
• Classic lambda phage model.
C. Budding only
• Animal viruses.
D. Sporulation
• Not viral.
Q14. Which bacteriophage is famous for the lysogenic cycle model?
A. T4 phage
• Obligate lytic.
B. Lambda (λ) phage ✅
• Integrates into E. coli genome.
C. MS2
• RNA phage.
D. M13
• Filamentous, chronic release.
Q15. Which method detects viral RNA in clinical samples?
A. ELISA
• Detects proteins/antibodies.
B. RT-PCR (Reverse Transcriptase PCR) ✅
• Gold standard for RNA viruses like SARS-CoV-2.
C. Western blot
• Detects proteins.
D. Electron microscopy
• Shows morphology only.
Q16. Hemagglutination test is based on:
A. WBC clumping
• Not true.
B. Ability of some viruses (influenza) to agglutinate red blood cells ✅
• Useful for quantification.
C. Antibody neutralization only
• Different test.
D. Complement fixation
• Not HA.
Q17. Plaque assay is used to:
A. Measure viral antibodies
• ELISA/neutralization.
B. Quantify infectious virus particles (PFU/ml) ✅
• Clear zones on cell lawn.
C. Identify DNA sequence
• PCR/sequencing.
D. Detect viral proteins
• Western blot.
Q18. Which virus causes the common cold most frequently?
A. Influenza
• Causes flu, not common cold.
B. Rhinoviruses (Picornaviridae) ✅
• >100 serotypes, spread by droplets.
C. Coronavirus (seasonal)
• Some, but less frequent than rhinoviruses.
D. Adenovirus
• Can cause cold-like illness.
Q19. Poliovirus belongs to which family?
A. Orthomyxoviridae
• Influenza.
B. Picornaviridae (enterovirus genus) ✅
• Non-enveloped +ssRNA virus.
C. Retroviridae
• HIV.
D. Adenoviridae
• dsDNA.
Q20. Hepatitis B virus genome is:
A. +ssRNA
• Hepatitis A/E.
B. –ssRNA
• Not HBV.
C. Partially double-stranded DNA (with reverse transcriptase activity) ✅
• Hepadnavirus.
D. dsRNA
• Reoviridae.
Q21. Which hepatitis virus is a satellite virus requiring HBV?
A. Hepatitis A
• Independent RNA virus.
B. Hepatitis D virus (HDV) ✅
• Needs HBV envelope protein (HBsAg).
C. Hepatitis C
• Flavivirus, independent.
D. Hepatitis E
• Independent.
Q22. Which virus is linked to cervical cancer?
A. HSV
• Causes genital lesions, not main cancer.
B. Human papillomavirus (HPV, esp. types 16, 18) ✅
• Oncogenic E6/E7 proteins inactivate p53/Rb.
C. HIV
• Indirect role.
D. EBV
• Other cancers.
Q23. The largest human virus is:
A. Adenovirus
• Medium-sized dsDNA virus.
B. Poxvirus (e.g., Variola virus) ✅
• Large brick-shaped dsDNA virus, replicates in cytoplasm.
C. Herpesvirus
• Large, but smaller.
D. Reovirus
• Not largest.
Q24. The smallest known human virus is:
A. Herpesvirus
• Larger.
B. Parvovirus B19 ✅
• Tiny ssDNA virus (~18–26 nm), causes fifth disease in children.
C. Hepatitis C virus
• Medium-sized RNA virus.
D. Adenovirus
• Larger.
Q25. Which virus was the first to be crystallized (proof that viruses are distinct from cells)?
A. Influenza
• Discovered later.
B. HIV
• Much later.
C. Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) ✅
• Crystallized by Wendell Stanley, 1935.
D. Smallpox virus
• Known historically, not crystallized first.
Part 2 — Virology MCQs (Q26–Q50)
Q26. Which virus replicates entirely in the cytoplasm despite being a DNA virus?
A. Herpesvirus
• Replicates in nucleus.
B. Poxvirus (e.g., variola, vaccinia) ✅
• Carries its own RNA polymerase for cytoplasmic replication.
C. Adenovirus
• Needs nucleus.
D. Papillomavirus
• Nuclear replication.
Q27. Which RNA virus replicates in the nucleus?
A. Rabies virus
• Cytoplasmic.
B. Orthomyxoviridae (influenza virus) ✅
• Needs host nuclear splicing machinery, cap-snatching.
C. Paramyxoviridae (measles)
• Cytoplasmic.
D. Picornaviridae
• Cytoplasmic.
Q28. A non-enveloped virus is generally more resistant to:
A. UV light
• Not necessarily.
B. Detergents, drying, gastric acid ✅
• Envelopes are lipid-based; naked viruses survive longer outside host.
C. Antiviral drugs
• Not always.
D. Mutation
• Not linked to envelope.
Q29. Which of the following is a double-stranded RNA virus?
A. Influenza
• –ssRNA.
B. Rotavirus (Reoviridae) ✅
• Wheel-shaped, major cause of infant diarrhea.
C. Poliovirus
• +ssRNA.
D. Adenovirus
• dsDNA.
Q30. Which virus carries its own RNA-dependent RNA polymerase (RdRp) inside virion?
A. Retrovirus
• Carries reverse transcriptase.
B. Negative-sense RNA viruses (e.g., rabies, influenza) ✅
• Need RdRp to make +RNA.
C. Positive-sense RNA viruses
• Can use host ribosomes directly.
D. DNA viruses
• Don’t use RdRp.
Q31. Which virus causes rabies?
A. Orthomyxovirus
• Influenza.
B. Rhabdovirus (Rabies virus) ✅
• Bullet-shaped, –ssRNA.
C. Flavivirus
• Dengue, Zika.
D. Reovirus
• Rotavirus.
Q32. The diagnostic Negri bodies are found in:
A. Polio
• No.
B. Rabies virus infection (cytoplasmic inclusions in neurons) ✅
• Pathognomonic in hippocampus, Purkinje cells.
C. HSV encephalitis
• Cowdry type A bodies.
D. CMV
• Owl’s eye inclusions.
Q33. Which virus causes measles?
A. Orthomyxovirus
• Influenza.
B. Paramyxovirus (Morbillivirus) ✅
• Causes fever, cough, conjunctivitis, Koplik spots, rash.
C. Togavirus
• Rubella.
D. Adenovirus
• Respiratory disease.
Q34. A classic Koplik’s spot (tiny white lesions in mouth) is diagnostic of:
A. Rubella
• No mouth spots.
B. Measles (Morbillivirus) ✅
• Pathognomonic sign.
C. Chickenpox
• Vesicular rash.
D. HSV
• Ulcers, not Koplik’s.
Q35. Mumps virus belongs to:
A. Orthomyxovirus
• No.
B. Paramyxovirus ✅
• Parotitis, orchitis, aseptic meningitis.
C. Togavirus
• Rubella.
D. Flavivirus
• Dengue.
Q36. Which virus causes congenital rubella syndrome?
A. Paramyxovirus
• Measles/mumps.
B. Rubella virus (Togaviridae) ✅
• Sensorineural deafness, cataracts, PDA if infected in 1st trimester.
C. CMV
• Can cause congenital infection, but not rubella syndrome.
D. HIV
• Not congenital rubella.
Q37. Which virus causes chickenpox and shingles?
A. Poxvirus
• Smallpox.
B. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV, a herpesvirus) ✅
• Latent in dorsal root ganglia → reactivation as shingles.
C. Adenovirus
• Respiratory illness.
D. Coxsackievirus
• Hand-foot-mouth.
Q38. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is diagnosed by:
A. Negri bodies
• Rabies.
B. “Owl’s eye” nuclear inclusions ✅
• Seen in CMV-infected cells.
C. Councilman bodies
• Viral hepatitis.
D. Cowdry A bodies
• HSV.
Q39. Which virus is the leading cause of bronchiolitis and pneumonia in infants?
A. Adenovirus
• Less common.
B. Influenza
• Affects all ages.
C. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV, paramyxovirus) ✅
• Fusion protein forms syncytia in lungs.
D. Rhinovirus
• Common cold.
Q40. Which antiviral is used for RSV prophylaxis in high-risk infants?
A. Acyclovir
• HSV/VZV.
B. Palivizumab (monoclonal antibody to RSV F protein) ✅
• Prevents fusion and entry.
C. Ribavirin
• Sometimes used in treatment.
D. Ganciclovir
• CMV.
Q41. Which virus is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma?
A. HPV
• Cervical cancer.
B. Epstein–Barr virus (EBV, herpesvirus) ✅
• Infects B cells via CD21 receptor.
C. HTLV-1
• Adult T-cell leukemia.
D. HBV
• Hepatocellular carcinoma.
Q42. Which receptor does HIV use to enter T-cells?
A. CD8
• Cytotoxic T cells, not target.
B. CD4 + chemokine co-receptors CCR5 (macrophages) or CXCR4 (T-cells) ✅
• gp120 binds CD4, gp41 mediates fusion.
C. ICAM-1
• Rhinoviruses.
D. Integrins
• Not HIV.
Q43. The window period in HIV infection refers to:
A. Time before infection
• No.
B. Time after infection when virus present but antibodies not yet detectable ✅
• Diagnosed by p24 antigen/RT-PCR.
C. Time after seroconversion
• Not window.
D. Period of AIDS
• Not definition.
Q44. The major viral cause of gastroenteritis in children worldwide is:
A. Adenovirus 40/41
• Can cause diarrhea.
B. Rotavirus (Reoviridae) ✅
• Double-stranded RNA, vaccine available.
C. Norovirus
• More outbreaks in adults.
D. Astrovirus
• Less common.
Q45. Which virus is most associated with cruise ship outbreaks of diarrhea?
A. Rotavirus
• Kids mainly.
B. Norovirus (Calicivirus) ✅
• Very contagious, foodborne/waterborne.
C. Astrovirus
• Rare.
D. Adenovirus
• Less common.
Q46. Which virus family includes yellow fever, dengue, Zika, West Nile?
A. Togaviridae
• Rubella.
B. Flaviviridae ✅
• Arboviruses, transmitted by Aedes/Culex mosquitoes.
C. Orthomyxoviridae
• Influenza.
D. Reoviridae
• Rotavirus.
Q47. The “breakbone fever” is due to:
A. Influenza
• Causes myalgia but not called breakbone.
B. Dengue virus (Flavivirus) ✅
• Severe myalgia, rash, hemorrhagic fever possible.
C. Measles
• Rash, not breakbone.
D. Chikungunya
• Severe arthritis, not breakbone.
Q48. Zika virus is associated with:
A. Only fever
• No.
B. Microcephaly and congenital malformations in neonates ✅
• Transplacental infection.
C. Ebola-like bleeding
• Not typical.
D. Pneumonia
• Not related.
Q49. The virus family that replicates via reverse transcriptase is:
A. Orthomyxoviridae
• Not correct.
B. Retroviridae (e.g., HIV, HTLV) ✅
• RNA → DNA → integration.
C. Herpesviridae
• DNA viruses.
D. Adenoviridae
• DNA viruses.
Q50. Which virus was successfully eradicated by vaccination?
A. Polio
• Almost, but not yet eradicated.
B. Smallpox virus (Variola, Poxviridae) ✅
• Declared eradicated in 1980.
C. Measles
• Still circulates.
D. Rabies
• Controlled, not eradicated.
Part 3 — Virology MCQs (Q51–Q75)
Q51. Which virus is strongly associated with cervical carcinoma?
A. EBV
• Linked to Burkitt’s lymphoma.
B. Human papillomavirus (HPV types 16 & 18) ✅
• Viral E6/E7 proteins inactivate p53 & Rb tumor suppressors.
C. HBV
• Linked to hepatocellular carcinoma.
D. HTLV-1
• Linked to adult T-cell leukemia.
Q52. Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is associated with:
A. Measles virus
• No oncogenic link.
B. Chronic HBV (Hepadnavirus) and HCV (Flavivirus) ✅
• Long-term inflammation + integration → HCC.
C. Influenza virus
• Not oncogenic.
D. Adenovirus
• Experimental tumors in animals, not humans.
Q53. HTLV-1 (Human T-cell leukemia virus) causes:
A. Burkitt’s lymphoma
• EBV.
B. Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma ✅
• First human retrovirus linked to cancer.
C. Hodgkin’s disease
• EBV link.
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
• HHV-8.
Q54. Kaposi’s sarcoma in AIDS patients is associated with:
A. EBV
• Causes lymphomas.
B. Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8) ✅
• Induces angioproliferative lesions.
C. HPV
• Cervical cancer.
D. CMV
• Not oncogenic.
Q55. Ebola virus belongs to which family?
A. Orthomyxoviridae
• Influenza.
B. Filoviridae ✅
• Filamentous –ssRNA virus, causes hemorrhagic fever.
C. Paramyxoviridae
• Measles, mumps.
D. Togaviridae
• Rubella.
Q56. The primary mode of Ebola transmission is:
A. Mosquito bite
• Not vector-borne.
B. Direct contact with body fluids of infected persons/animals ✅
• Highly contagious in outbreaks.
C. Airborne aerosols
• Not primary route.
D. Soil exposure
• Not relevant.
Q57. SARS-CoV-2 belongs to which virus family?
A. Orthomyxoviridae
• Influenza.
B. Coronaviridae (Betacoronavirus) ✅
• +ssRNA, crown-like spike proteins.
C. Paramyxoviridae
• RSV, measles.
D. Retroviridae
• HIV.
Q58. The receptor used by SARS-CoV-2 to enter human cells is:
A. CD4
• HIV.
B. ACE2 receptor (Angiotensin-converting enzyme 2) ✅
• Spike protein binds ACE2 → TMPRSS2 primes entry.
C. ICAM-1
• Rhinovirus.
D. CCR5
• HIV.
Q59. The first licensed mRNA vaccines (Pfizer, Moderna) were developed against:
A. Influenza
• Still in trials.
B. SARS-CoV-2 (COVID-19) ✅
• Breakthrough in vaccine technology.
C. HIV
• No approved vaccine yet.
D. Rabies
• Existing vaccines are inactivated.
Q60. Antigenic drift in influenza viruses is due to:
A. Genome reassortment
• That’s shift.
B. Point mutations in HA/NA genes ✅
• Leads to seasonal epidemics.
C. Host DNA integration
• Not influenza.
D. New species crossover only
• That’s shift.
Q61. Antigenic shift in influenza occurs because of:
A. Point mutations only
• Drift, not shift.
B. Reassortment of genome segments between different strains ✅
• Can cause pandemics (e.g., 2009 H1N1).
C. Silent mutations
• No effect.
D. Host immune response
• Not mechanism.
Q62. Which antiviral drug inhibits neuraminidase in influenza viruses?
A. Acyclovir
• HSV.
B. Oseltamivir (Tamiflu), zanamivir ✅
• Prevent viral release from host cell.
C. Ribavirin
• RSV, hepatitis C (older).
D. Zidovudine
• HIV.
Q63. Acyclovir is highly effective against:
A. HIV
• Needs reverse transcriptase inhibitors.
B. Herpes simplex virus (HSV), VZV ✅
• Requires viral thymidine kinase for activation.
C. Influenza
• Neuraminidase inhibitors needed.
D. Measles
• No specific antivirals.
Q64. Ganciclovir is used primarily for:
A. HSV-1/2
• Acyclovir better.
B. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections ✅
• Particularly in immunocompromised patients.
C. Rabies
• Vaccine + Ig required.
D. Influenza
• Not used.
Q65. Ribavirin is a broad-spectrum antiviral used for:
A. HPV
• Not effective.
B. RSV (sometimes), hepatitis C (with interferon, older therapy) ✅
• Guanosine analog.
C. HIV
• Not used.
D. CMV
• Ganciclovir preferred.
Q66. Zidovudine (AZT) acts by:
A. Blocking neuraminidase
• Influenza.
B. Inhibiting reverse transcriptase in retroviruses (HIV) ✅
• First antiretroviral drug approved.
C. Inhibiting protease
• Other HIV drugs.
D. Destroying ribosomes
• Not true.
Q67. Protease inhibitors (indinavir, ritonavir) in HIV therapy act by:
A. Blocking reverse transcriptase
• NRTIs do this.
B. Preventing cleavage of viral polyproteins into functional proteins ✅
• Essential for viral maturation.
C. Blocking entry
• Entry inhibitors differ.
D. Enhancing immunity only
• Not direct.
Q68. HAART (Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy) typically combines:
A. One drug only
• Leads to resistance.
B. Two NRTIs + one NNRTI/protease inhibitor/integrase inhibitor ✅
• Multi-drug regimen prevents resistance.
C. Antibiotics + antivirals
• Not standard.
D. Only protease inhibitors
• Not sufficient.
Q69. Integrase inhibitors (e.g., raltegravir) act by:
A. Blocking entry
• Not integrase.
B. Preventing integration of viral DNA into host genome ✅
• Important in HIV therapy.
C. Inhibiting protease
• Different drug class.
D. Inhibiting RdRp
• Other viruses.
Q70. Viruses evade immunity by:
A. Being visible to immune system
• False.
B. Antigenic variation, latency, blocking interferon response ✅
• Examples: HIV, herpesviruses.
C. Increasing immune activation
• Usually avoided.
D. Destroying all T-cells immediately
• Not all viruses.
Q71. Which virus establishes latent infection in neurons?
A. CMV
• Latent in monocytes.
B. Herpes simplex virus (HSV-1, HSV-2) ✅
• Resides in sensory ganglia, reactivates with stress.
C. HIV
• Latent in CD4 T cells, not neurons.
D. HBV
• Chronic infection, not latency.
Q72. JC virus (Polyomavirus) can cause:
A. Rabies
• No.
B. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) in immunosuppressed ✅
• Fatal demyelinating disease.
C. Hepatitis
• Not caused by JC virus.
D. Polio
• Enterovirus.
Q73. Prions differ from viruses because:
A. Have RNA genome
• Wrong.
B. Lack nucleic acid, are infectious proteins only ✅
• Cause spongiform encephalopathies (e.g., CJD).
C. Are larger than bacteria
• Not always.
D. Have envelopes
• Not true.
Q74. Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease (CJD) is caused by:
A. Virus
• Not virus.
B. Prions (misfolded PrPSc proteins) ✅
• Transmissible spongiform encephalopathy.
C. Retrovirus
• No.
D. Bacteria
• Wrong.
Q75. The first human disease eradicated by vaccination was:
A. Polio
• Not yet.
B. Smallpox (variola virus) ✅
• Declared eradicated in 1980 by WHO.
C. Measles
• Still present.
D. Rabies
• Controlled, not eradicated.
Part 4 — Virology MCQs (Q76–Q100)
Q76. The first widely used live-attenuated viral vaccine was for:
A. Polio (Salk)
• Salk was killed vaccine.
B. Smallpox (vaccinia virus) ✅
• Edward Jenner’s cowpox-based vaccine.
C. Rabies
• Pasteur developed later.
D. Hepatitis B
• Recombinant subunit vaccine.
Q77. Inactivated (killed) vaccines are used for:
A. MMR
• Live-attenuated.
B. Rabies, polio (Salk), hepatitis A ✅
• Non-replicating, safe for immunocompromised.
C. Yellow fever
• Live-attenuated.
D. Varicella
• Live-attenuated.
Q78. Subunit/recombinant vaccines include:
A. Polio (oral)
• Live-attenuated.
B. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) ✅
• Produced in yeast; first recombinant vaccine.
C. Measles
• Live-attenuated.
D. Smallpox
• Live-attenuated.
Q79. Which vaccine is recommended for HPV-related cancer prevention?
A. Hepatitis A vaccine
• No.
B. Gardasil, Cervarix (HPV 16, 18, others) ✅
• Prevents cervical, anal, oropharyngeal cancers.
C. Influenza vaccine
• Seasonal flu only.
D. Polio vaccine
• Prevents polio.
Q80. Which virus has an effective live-attenuated vaccine preventing congenital infection?
A. CMV
• No licensed vaccine yet.
B. Rubella virus ✅
• Part of MMR, prevents congenital rubella syndrome.
C. HIV
• No vaccine.
D. HBV
• Recombinant subunit.
Q81. Which vaccine is recommended for rabies post-exposure prophylaxis?
A. Inactivated polio vaccine
• Not rabies.
B. Inactivated rabies vaccine + rabies immunoglobulin ✅
• Immediate and long-term protection.
C. Live rabies vaccine
• Unsafe.
D. Oral vaccine only
• Not used.
Q82. RT-PCR became the gold standard test for:
A. HIV
• ELISA/Western also important.
B. SARS-CoV-2 detection (COVID-19) ✅
• Detects viral RNA in respiratory samples.
C. HBV
• DNA virus, different assays.
D. Polio
• Culture/PCR.
Q83. ELISA can detect:
A. Only DNA
• No.
B. Viral antigens or host antibodies to viruses ✅
• Widely used screening method.
C. Viral RNA only
• PCR needed.
D. Only proteins in culture
• Not restricted.
Q84. Western blot in virology is mainly used for:
A. Routine diagnosis always
• Too costly.
B. Confirming HIV infection after positive ELISA ✅
• Detects viral proteins via antibodies.
C. Detecting DNA
• Southern blot does.
D. Measuring infectivity
• Not blotting.
Q85. Antigenic variation in viruses is most prominent in:
A. Polio
• Stable.
B. Influenza (drift & shift), HIV (rapid mutation) ✅
• Leads to vaccine challenges.
C. Rabies
• Stable antigenically.
D. Smallpox
• Stable, allowed eradication.
Q86. Drug resistance in HIV often develops due to:
A. Stable genome
• HIV is highly error-prone.
B. Error-prone reverse transcriptase → high mutation rate ✅
• Requires HAART combination therapy.
C. Host immunity
• Not main cause.
D. DNA repair enzymes
• Absent in HIV.
Q87. Zoonotic spillover of viruses occurs when:
A. Animals eat plants
• Not relevant.
B. Animal viruses cross species barrier into humans ✅
• Example: SARS-CoV, Ebola, H5N1.
C. Vectors bite animals only
• Needs human exposure.
D. Host immunity disappears
• Not definition.
Q88. Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome is transmitted by:
A. Mosquito
• No.
B. Inhalation of rodent excreta aerosols ✅
• Caused by Bunyaviridae.
C. Sand fly
• Leishmania.
D. Tick
• Other arboviruses.
Q89. Nipah virus outbreaks have been associated with:
A. Birds
• Not main.
B. Fruit bats (Pteropus spp.), pigs as amplifiers ✅
• Emerging zoonosis in South Asia.
C. Dogs
• Not vector.
D. Cows
• Not reservoir.
Q90. A traveler from Africa presents with fever, hemorrhage, liver necrosis, jaundice — most likely:
A. Dengue
• Causes hemorrhage but not liver necrosis.
B. Yellow fever virus (Flavivirus) ✅
• Transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes.
C. Polio
• Not hemorrhagic.
D. Adenovirus
• Not relevant.
Q91. Which virus causes congenital microcephaly outbreaks in Brazil (2015-16)?
A. CMV
• Can cause, but not outbreak.
B. Zika virus ✅
• Flavivirus transmitted by Aedes.
C. EBV
• Not congenital.
D. Influenza
• Not typical.
Q92. Which hemorrhagic fever virus is tick-borne?
A. Dengue
• Aedes mosquitoes.
B. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever virus (Bunyaviridae) ✅
• Transmitted by Hyalomma ticks.
C. Ebola
• Person-to-person.
D. Hantavirus
• Rodent excreta.
Q93. Which virus causes fifth disease (erythema infectiosum) in children?
A. Rubella
• German measles.
B. Parvovirus B19 ✅
• Slapped-cheek rash, aplastic crisis in sickle cell patients.
C. HSV
• Cold sores.
D. Coxsackievirus
• Hand-foot-mouth.
Q94. Which virus is the leading cause of congenital infection worldwide?
A. HIV
• Transplacental, but not leading.
B. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) ✅
• Causes hearing loss, microcephaly, developmental delay.
C. Rubella
• Preventable by vaccine.
D. Zika
• Regional outbreaks only.
Q95. A patient bitten by a stray dog should receive:
A. Antibiotics only
• Not enough.
B. Rabies vaccine + rabies immunoglobulin (if not previously vaccinated) ✅
• Standard post-exposure prophylaxis.
C. Rabies vaccine alone
• Ig is required for first exposure.
D. Nothing if wound washed
• Wrong.
Q96. Which virus is unique in replicating within erythroid precursor cells?
A. Adenovirus
• No.
B. Parvovirus B19 ✅
• Targets bone marrow → aplastic crisis in sickle cell disease.
C. Polio
• CNS neurons.
D. Hepatitis C
• Hepatocytes.
Q97. Slow viral diseases are characterized by:
A. Acute onset always
• Opposite.
B. Long incubation, progressive fatal course (e.g., prion diseases, SSPE after measles) ✅
• Slow neurodegeneration.
C. Rapid viral replication
• Not slow viruses.
D. Short latency
• Opposite.
Q98. Which viral infection is eradication target after smallpox?
A. HIV
• Complex, no vaccine.
B. Polio (poliovirus) ✅
• Global eradication campaign ongoing.
C. Measles
• Still circulating.
D. Rabies
• Controlled, not eradicated.
Q99. Viruses are important in biotechnology because:
A. They kill cells only
• Not true.
B. Vectors for gene therapy, vaccines, molecular biology tools (phage display, CRISPR origins) ✅
• Essential research tools.
C. Only harmful
• Too narrow.
D. Not useful
• Incorrect.
Q100. Why is virology essential for competitive exams like NEET, USMLE, GRE, IMAT?
A. Only academic
• Wrong.
B. Viruses cause global diseases, have unique biology, and are crucial in medicine, biotechnology, and public health ✅
• Multidisciplinary relevance.
C. Only rare infections
• Many are common.
D. Limited scope
• Very broad impact.
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