How do Organisms Reproduce? – MCQs with Answers and Explanations
Class 10
CBSE Board Examinations
Designed strictly as per NCERT syllabus — ideal for board exam practice
Instructions: Each question has four options (A–D). Correct answer and a concise explanation follow each question. Topic-wise grouping helps targeted revision. No countdown timer is included.
Fundamentals of Reproduction (Q1–Q8)
Basic concepts & importance
1. Which of the following best describes reproduction?
A. Process of digestion
B. Production of new individuals of same species
C. Exchange of gases
D. Movement of organisms
Answer: B. Explanation: Reproduction ensures continuation of a species by generating new individuals.
2. Which statement about asexual reproduction is TRUE?
A. Requires two parents
B. Produces genetically diverse offspring
C. Involves gamete fusion
D. Offspring are genetically similar to parent
Answer: D. Explanation: Asexual reproduction produces clones without gamete fusion; examples include binary fission and budding.
3. Which is an advantage of sexual reproduction?
A. Rapid increase in population
B. No need for mate
C. Generation of genetic variation
D. Exact cloning of parent
Answer: C. Explanation: Sexual reproduction mixes genes from two parents producing variation important for evolution.
4. Which process halves chromosome number to produce gametes?
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Binary fission
D. Budding
Answer: B. Explanation: Meiosis reduces diploid chromosome number to haploid in gametes, maintaining species' chromosome number after fertilization.
5. Genetic variation arises in sexual reproduction primarily due to:
A. Binary fission
B. Crossing over and independent assortment
C. Budding
D. Cloning
Answer: B. Explanation: Crossing over during meiosis and independent assortment produce new allele combinations.
6. Which of these is NOT a reason why reproduction is essential?
A. Species continuity
B. Nutrient absorption
C. Genetic diversity
D. Evolutionary adaptation
Answer: B. Explanation: Nutrient absorption is not a reproductive function; reproduction maintains species and variation.
7. Which is TRUE about clones produced by asexual reproduction?
A. They are genetically identical to the parent
B. They always show new traits
C. They result from gamete fusion
D. They increase genetic diversity
Answer: A. Explanation: Asexual offspring are genetically identical (barring mutations) since no recombination occurs.
8. Which of the following statements about life cycles is CORRECT?
A. All organisms reproduce sexually
B. Some organisms have both sexual and asexual phases
C. Only animals show alternation of generations
D. Asexual reproduction always involves seeds
Answer: B. Explanation: Many organisms (e.g., some plants, fungi) display both sexual and asexual phases in their life cycles.
Asexual Reproduction & Vegetative Propagation (Q9–Q22)
Binary fission, budding, spores, vegetative methods
9. Which organism reproduces by binary fission?
A. Hydra
B. Amoeba
C. Spirogyra
D. Coconut
Answer: B. Explanation: Amoeba divides into two by binary fission; Hydra reproduces by budding.
10. Budding is commonly seen in:
A. Yeast and Hydra
B. Ferns
C. Rhizopus
D. Human cells
Answer: A. Explanation: Yeast and Hydra form buds that grow out and detach as new individuals.
11. Spore formation is an advantage to fungi because spores are:
A. Large and heavy
B. Produced in small numbers
C. Resistant and easily dispersed
D. Always sexually produced
Answer: C. Explanation: Spores are often resistant and produced abundantly for effective dispersal and survival.
12. Which structure in potato is used for vegetative propagation?
A. Seed
B. Runner
C. Tuber
D. Rhizome
Answer: C. Explanation: Potato tubers are swollen stems that bear eyes (buds) capable of growing into new plants.
13. Which method is an artificial vegetative propagation technique?
A. Runners
B. Cuttings
C. Tubers
D. Spores
Answer: B. Explanation: Cuttings are an artificial propagation method used in horticulture to clone plants.
14. Which is the correct pair: structure and function?
A. Runner — sexual reproduction
B. Tuber — storage and vegetative propagation
C. Sporangium — flowering
D. Bud — seed dispersal
Answer: B. Explanation: Tubers store food and give rise to new plants; runners are natural vegetative stems.
15. Grafting is preferred in fruit tree cultivation because it:
A. Produces seeds
B. Combines desirable traits of two plants
C. Is faster than cutting always
D. Requires no skill
Answer: B. Explanation: Grafting helps combine disease-resistant rootstock with good fruiting scions for better yields.
16. Which is NOT a vegetative propagation method?
A. Layering
B. Budding
C. Cuttings
D. Spores
Answer: D. Explanation: Spores are not vegetative parts; they are reproductive units produced by fungi and some plants.
17. Which plant part is commonly used for grafting?
A. Rootstock and scion (stem piece)
B. Seed only
C. Leaf blade
D. Flower petal
Answer: A. Explanation: Grafting involves a scion (desired stem piece) joined onto a rootstock for combined traits.
18. Which of the following produces bulbs used for vegetative propagation?
A. Wheat
B. Onion
C. Coconut
D. Maize
Answer: B. Explanation: Onion is a bulb; bulbs are modified stems used to propagate plants like onion and garlic.
19. Which statement about vegetative propagation is CORRECT?
A. It increases genetic variability
B. It is always slower than sexual reproduction
C. It produces clones of parent plants
D. It requires pollination
Answer: C. Explanation: Vegetative propagation produces genetically identical offspring (clones) to the parent plant.
20. Which of the following would be LEAST useful for rapid multiplication of an elite crop variety?
A. Tissue culture
B. Cuttings
C. Sexual seed production
D. Runners
Answer: C. Explanation: Sexual seed production introduces variation and is slower for maintaining uniform elite traits compared to vegetative methods.
Sexual Reproduction — Plants (Q23–Q38)
Pollination, fertilization, seed & fruit formation, dispersal
21. Pollination is defined as:
A. Fusion of gametes
B. Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma
C. Seed germination
D. Growth of pollen tube
Answer: B. Explanation: Pollination delivers pollen to the stigma, a prerequisite for fertilization in flowering plants.
22. Which type of pollination involves wind as the agent?
A. Entomophily
B. Hydrophily
C. Anemophily
D. Zoophily
Answer: C. Explanation: Anemophily is wind pollination; entomophily is insect pollination, zoophily involves animals.
23. Double fertilization results in formation of:
A. Two zygotes
B. Zygote and endosperm
C. Two endosperms
D. Two pollen tubes
Answer: B. Explanation: One sperm fuses with egg forming zygote; the other fuses with polar nuclei forming triploid endosperm.
24. Which floral part develops into the seed?
A. Ovary
B. Ovule
C. Stigma
D. Anther
Answer: B. Explanation: Ovule develops into seed after fertilization; ovary becomes fruit.
25. Which is NOT a function of fruit?
A. Protect seeds
B. Aid seed dispersal
C. Photosynthesis majorly
D. Attract animals
Answer: C. Explanation: Fruits primarily protect and aid dispersal of seeds; photosynthesis is mainly a leaf function.
26. What is the role of nectar in flowers?
A. Provide food for pollinators
B. Attract predators
C. Protect seeds
D. Store pollen
Answer: A. Explanation: Nectar attracts pollinators which in turn help transfer pollen between flowers.
27. Which of these seed dispersal mechanisms relies on water?
A. Wind dispersal
B. Zoochory
C. Hydrochory
D. Autochory
Answer: C. Explanation: Hydrochory refers to seed dispersal by water (e.g., coconut).
28. Apomixis in plants refers to:
A. Sexually produced seeds
B. Seed formation without fertilization
C. Vegetative propagation by runners
D. Self-incompatibility
Answer: B. Explanation: Apomixis produces seeds asexually leading to clonal progeny without fertilization.
29. Which of the following adaptations is typical of wind-pollinated flowers?
A. Bright petals
B. Large nectar production
C. Feathery stigmas
D. Sticky pollen
Answer: C. Explanation: Feathery stigmas trap airborne pollen; wind-pollinated flowers usually lack bright petals and nectar.
30. Endosperm formed after double fertilization functions as:
A. Protective coat
B. Nutritional tissue for embryo
C. Pollen producer
D. Root starter
Answer: B. Explanation: Endosperm supplies stored food for the developing embryo during germination.
31. Which option correctly pairs pollination agent and example?
A. Wind — lotus
B. Water — maize
C. Insects — sunflower
D. Birds — wheat
Answer: C. Explanation: Sunflower is insect-pollinated; maize is wind-pollinated, lotus may be water/insect depending on species.
Human Reproduction — Basics (Q39–Q48)
Male & female systems, gametogenesis, fertilization
32. Which organ produces sperm in humans?
A. Ovary
B. Testis
C. Uterus
D. Prostate
Answer: B. Explanation: Testes (testicles) produce sperm and testosterone in males.
33. Where does fertilization usually occur in human females?
A. Ovary
B. Uterus
C. Fallopian tube (oviduct)
D. Vagina
Answer: C. Explanation: Fertilization commonly takes place in the fallopian tube shortly after ovulation.
34. Spermatogenesis results in formation of:
A. One ovum
B. Four sperms
C. Two eggs
D. One sperm
Answer: B. Explanation: Meiosis and differentiation produce four haploid sperm from one spermatogonium.
35. Oogenesis in human females typically results in formation of:
A. Four equal ova
B. One ovum and polar bodies
C. Two sperm
D. Many ova per cycle
Answer: B. Explanation: Oogenesis produces one large ovum and smaller polar bodies due to unequal cytokinesis.
36. Which hormone triggers ovulation in females?
A. FSH
B. Estrogen
C. LH (Luteinizing Hormone)
D. Progesterone
Answer: C. Explanation: LH surge induces ovulation releasing the secondary oocyte from ovary.
37. Which gland is called the 'master gland' that controls many endocrine functions including reproduction?
A. Thyroid
B. Pancreas
C. Pituitary
D. Adrenal
Answer: C. Explanation: Pituitary secretes FSH and LH which regulate gonadal functions.
38. The function of the placenta does NOT include:
A. Exchange of gases and nutrients
B. Hormone production to maintain pregnancy
C. Direct blood mixing between mother and fetus
D. Waste removal from fetal blood
Answer: C. Explanation: Placenta facilitates exchange without direct mixing of maternal and fetal blood in normal conditions.
39. Which statement about menstruation is CORRECT?
A. It is caused by fertilization
B. It is shedding of uterine lining when fertilization does not occur
C. It happens in males
D. It is triggered by testosterone
Answer: B. Explanation: Menstruation is the monthly shedding of endometrium if implantation does not occur.
40. Which of the following is TRUE about human fertilization?
A. It always occurs in the uterus
B. It restores diploid chromosome number
C. It halves chromosome number
D. It produces gametes
Answer: B. Explanation: Fusion of haploid gametes restores the diploid chromosome number in the zygote.
Gametogenesis & Development (Q49–Q58)
Meiosis, early development, embryo
41. Crossing over during meiosis occurs in which stage?
A. Prophase I
B. Anaphase II
C. Telophase I
D. Metaphase II
Answer: A. Explanation: Homologous chromosomes exchange segments during prophase I contributing to genetic recombination.
42. The stage of early embryonic development with a fluid-filled cavity is called:
A. Morula
B. Blastocyst
C. Zygote
D. Gastrula
Answer: B. Explanation: Blastocyst contains an inner cell mass and blastocoel before implantation.
43. Which process ensures one-way movement of action potential in neurons and is analogous to the unidirectional fusion of gametes?
A. Refractory period
B. Saltatory conduction
C. Synaptic transmission
D. Resting potential
Answer: A. Explanation: Refractory period prevents immediate re-firing, enforcing unidirectional impulse propagation (analogy only).
44. Implantation of blastocyst occurs in human uterus around:
A. Day 1
B. Day 3
C. Day 6–7
D. Day 20
Answer: C. Explanation: Blastocyst typically implants in endometrium about 6–7 days after fertilization.
45. Teratogens are agents that:
A. Enhance fertility
B. Cause developmental abnormalities in embryos
C. Promote implantation
D. Increase birth weight
Answer: B. Explanation: Teratogens like certain drugs, alcohol or infections can cause birth defects if exposure occurs during organogenesis.
46. Which of the following is NOT part of early embryonic development?
A. Cleavage
B. Gastrulation
C. Organogenesis
D. Spermatogenesis
Answer: D. Explanation: Spermatogenesis is gamete formation, not an embryonic development stage.
47. Which cells give rise to gametes in animals?
A. Somatic cells
B. Germ cells
C. Epithelial cells
D. Muscle cells
Answer: B. Explanation: Germ cells undergo meiosis to form gametes (sperms or eggs).
48. Which event restores diploid number in sexual reproduction?
A. Meiosis
B. Fertilization
C. Mitosis
D. Binary fission
Answer: B. Explanation: Fusion of two haploid gametes during fertilization restores diploid chromosome complement in zygote.
Reproductive Health & Contraception (Q59–Q66)
Methods of contraception, STIs, public health
49. Which contraceptive method is barrier type?
A. Oral contraceptive pill
B. Condom
C. Injectable hormone
D. Copper IUD
Answer: B. Explanation: Condoms physically block sperm entry and also reduce STI transmission; other methods are hormonal or intrauterine devices.
50. Which contraceptive method provides long-term reversible protection?
A. Condom
B. Daily pill
C. Copper IUD
D. Coitus interruptus
Answer: C. Explanation: Copper IUD offers long-term, reversible contraception lasting several years.
51. HPV vaccination helps prevent which condition later in life?
A. Cervical cancer
B. Diabetes
C. Heart disease
D. Asthma
Answer: A. Explanation: Human papillomavirus vaccination reduces risk of cervical cancer caused by oncogenic HPV strains.
52. Which sexually transmitted infection is viral and has no complete cure but can be managed?
A. Gonorrhea
B. Syphilis
C. HIV
D. Chlamydia
Answer: C. Explanation: HIV is viral and managed with antiretroviral therapy; bacterial STIs like gonorrhea and syphilis are treatable with antibiotics.
53. Emergency contraception primarily works by:
A. Causing fertilization
B. Preventing ovulation or implantation
C. Increasing sperm production
D. Causing abortion always
Answer: B. Explanation: Emergency contraceptives can delay ovulation or prevent implantation if taken soon after unprotected intercourse.
54. Which is the most effective method to prevent both pregnancy and STIs when used correctly?
A. Condom
B. Oral pill
C. IUD
D. Withdrawal method
Answer: A. Explanation: Condoms protect against pregnancy and most STIs when used properly; other methods may prevent pregnancy but not STIs.
55. Which public health measure reduces STI spread effectively?
A. Abstinence only education
B. Screening and treatment programs
C. Ignoring high-risk groups
D. Discouraging condom use
Answer: B. Explanation: Regular screening, treatment, education and access to condoms reduce STI transmission in populations.
56. Which contraceptive method involves a surgical procedure for permanent sterilization?
A. Condom
B. Tubectomy (female) / Vasectomy (male)
C. IUD
D. Oral pill
Answer: B. Explanation: Tubectomy and vasectomy are surgical sterilization procedures intended to be permanent.
Comparisons, Miscellaneous & Exam Tips (Q67–Q70)
Quick facts, comparisons and exam-oriented questions
57. Which is a key difference between mitosis and meiosis?
A. Mitosis produces haploid cells
B. Meiosis includes crossing over
C. Mitosis increases genetic variation
D. Meiosis results in identical daughter cells
Answer: B. Explanation: Meiosis includes crossing over and reduces chromosome number; mitosis produces identical diploid cells.
58. For CBSE board preparation, which strategy is most effective?
A. Memorise definitions only
B. Understand concepts, practice diagrams and solve NCERT questions
C. Skip NCERT textbook
D. Only practice MCQs
Answer: B. Explanation: Conceptual understanding, diagrams and NCERT practice ensure good board exam performance.
59. Which of the following pairs is CORRECT?
A. Endosperm — diploid
B. Endosperm — triploid
C. Zygote — haploid
D. Gamete — diploid
Answer: B. Explanation: Endosperm formed by fusion of sperm with two polar nuclei is typically triploid in angiosperms.
60. Which statement about apomixis is TRUE?
A. It requires pollination
B. It produces genetically variable seeds
C. It is seed formation without fertilization
D. It occurs in animals
Answer: C. Explanation: Apomixis produces seeds asexually resulting in clonal offspring; common in some plants.
61. Which cell type divides by mitosis to replenish somatic tissues but not to produce gametes?
A. Germ cells
B. Somatic cells
C. Gametes
D. Zygotes
Answer: B. Explanation: Somatic cells divide by mitosis for growth and repair; germ cells undergo meiosis to produce gametes.
62. Which of the following best describes self-pollination?
A. Pollen transfer between different species
B. Pollen transfer within same flower or plant
C. Transfer via animals only
D. Pollen formation in ovary
Answer: B. Explanation: Self-pollination is pollen transfer within the same flower or plant, often leading to less variation than cross-pollination.
63. Which of these is a common exam tip for answering reproduction questions?
A. Avoid diagrams
B. Use clear labelled diagrams and stepwise explanations
C. Write only one-word answers for long questions
D. Skip NCERT examples
Answer: B. Explanation: Diagrams with labels and stepwise processes score well in board exams; follow NCERT style.
64. Which term denotes the release of an egg from ovary?
A. Ovulation
B. Fertilization
C. Implantation
D. Menstruation
Answer: A. Explanation: Ovulation is the release of a mature oocyte from the ovary during the menstrual cycle.
65. Which hormone prepares the uterus for implantation?
A. Testosterone
B. Progesterone
C. Adrenaline
D. Insulin
Answer: B. Explanation: Progesterone from corpus luteum maintains endometrium, preparing for implantation and pregnancy maintenance.
66. Which of the following best explains why sexual reproduction is favoured in changing environments?
A. Produces identical offspring
B. Produces variable offspring increasing adaptability
C. Requires no mate
D. Always faster
Answer: B. Explanation: Genetic variation from sexual reproduction provides material for natural selection enabling adaptation to environmental changes.
Advanced & Applied Questions (Q67–Q70)
Applications, biotechnology, conservation and quick revision
67. Tissue culture in plants is most useful for:
A. Producing genetically diverse seedlings only
B. Rapid clonal propagation of disease-free plants
C. Increasing pollen production
D. Producing gametes
Answer: B. Explanation: Tissue culture allows mass production of uniform, disease-free plants from small explants under controlled conditions.
68. Assisted reproductive technology (ART) like IVF is used mainly to:
A. Prevent all genetic diseases
B. Assist couples with infertility to conceive
C. Replace natural reproduction entirely
D. Increase STI spread
Answer: B. Explanation: IVF and related techniques help couples conceive when natural fertilization is difficult or impossible.
69. Conservation of endangered plant species can involve which reproductive technique?
A. Overharvesting
B. Vegetative propagation and tissue culture
C. Ignoring habitat loss
D. Promoting invasive species
Answer: B. Explanation: Vegetative propagation and tissue culture enable propagation and reintroduction of rare plant species into the wild.
70. For exam revision, which of the following is MOST recommended?
A. Only reading internet notes
B. Practising NCERT questions, diagrams and past papers
C. Memorising without understanding
D. Studying only last week before exam
Answer: B. Explanation: NCERT practice, diagrams and past papers closely align with CBSE exam patterns and ensure strong preparation.