Multiple-choice questions (MCQs) with answers on the topic “Anti-Defection Law: Safeguarding Democracy or Curbing Dissent?”
1. The Anti-Defection Law was introduced in which year through the Constitution?
A) 1975
B) 1985
C) 1992
D) 2003
Answer: B) 1985
2. The Anti-Defection Law is included in which Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
A) Eighth Schedule
B) Ninth Schedule
C) Tenth Schedule
D) Eleventh Schedule
Answer: C) Tenth Schedule
3. The main objective of the Anti-Defection Law is to:
A) Promote multi-party democracy
B) Prevent members of Parliament and legislative assemblies from switching parties
C) Encourage coalition governments
D) Restrict the formation of new political parties
Answer: B) Prevent members of Parliament and legislative assemblies from switching parties
4. Who has the authority to decide disqualification under the Anti-Defection Law?
A) The President
B) The Election Commission
C) The Speaker or Chairman of the respective house
D) The Supreme Court
Answer: C) The Speaker or Chairman of the respective house
5. According to the Anti-Defection Law, a member is disqualified if he/she voluntarily gives up membership of the:
A) Legislative Assembly
B) Political Party
C) Cabinet
D) Parliamentary Committee
Answer: B) Political Party
6. What percentage of members of a political party is required to merge with another party without attracting disqualification under the Anti-Defection Law?
A) One-third
B) Two-thirds
C) Three-fourths
D) Fifty percent
Answer: B) Two-thirds
7. The Anti-Defection Law was introduced through which constitutional amendment?
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 52nd Amendment
C) 61st Amendment
D) 69th Amendment
Answer: B) 52nd Amendment
8. Which of the following is an exemption to disqualification under the Anti-Defection Law?
A) Voting against party direction in a vote of confidence
B) Merging with another party with two-thirds of members
C) Leaving the political party after elections
D) Resigning from the membership of the political party
Answer: B) Merging with another party with two-thirds of members
9. In 2003, which constitutional amendment further strengthened the Anti-Defection Law?
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 86th Amendment
C) 91st Amendment
D) 100th Amendment
Answer: C) 91st Amendment
10. Under the Anti-Defection Law, who has the power to make decisions on disqualification based on defection?
A) The Prime Minister
B) The Election Commission
C) The Presiding Officer of the House
D) The Chief Justice of India
Answer: C) The Presiding Officer of the House
11. Which Supreme Court judgment ruled that the decisions of the Speaker under the Anti-Defection Law are subject to judicial review?
A) Kesavananda Bharati case
B) SR Bommai case
C) Kihoto Hollohan case
D) Golaknath case
Answer: C) Kihoto Hollohan case
12. How long does the Presiding Officer have to make a decision on a defection case?
A) 1 week
B) 1 month
C) 3 months
D) No time limit specified
Answer: D) No time limit specified
13. The Anti-Defection Law applies to members of:
A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha only
B) State Legislative Assemblies only
C) Both Parliament and State Legislatures
D) Only Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Councils
Answer: C) Both Parliament and State Legislatures
14. Which of the following does not attract disqualification under the Anti-Defection Law?
A) Voting contrary to party direction on a non-confidence motion
B) Resigning from the party before election
C) Voting against party direction in a presidential election
D) Joining a rival political party after election
Answer: C) Voting against party direction in a presidential election
15. The Anti-Defection Law was primarily introduced to address which problem?
A) Coalition politics
B) Political corruption and instability due to defections
C) Lack of women’s representation in Parliament
D) Over-centralization of power
Answer: B) Political corruption and instability due to defections
16. Which body can the disqualified member of the Parliament approach for a judicial review of the Presiding Officer’s decision under the Anti-Defection Law?
A) High Court
B) Supreme Court
C) Both High Court and Supreme Court
D) National Human Rights Commission
Answer: C) Both High Court and Supreme Court
17. What is the minimum number of MPs or MLAs required for a political party to be exempt from the Anti-Defection Law during a merger?
A) 25% of the members
B) One-third of the members
C) Two-thirds of the members
D) 50% of the members
Answer: C) Two-thirds of the members
18. Which Indian Prime Minister was in office when the Anti-Defection Law was first introduced?
A) Indira Gandhi
B) Rajiv Gandhi
C) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
D) PV Narasimha Rao
Answer: B) Rajiv Gandhi
19. Under the Anti-Defection Law, the term “voluntarily giving up membership” is interpreted broadly. Which body has defined this term?
A) Election Commission
B) Supreme Court of India
C) Law Commission
D) Attorney General of India
Answer: B) Supreme Court of India
20. The Anti-Defection Law curbs dissent by:
A) Encouraging open criticism within parties
B) Restricting MPs and MLAs from freely expressing opposition
C) Promoting multi-party coalitions
D) Allowing members to vote on conscience
Answer: B) Restricting MPs and MLAs from freely expressing opposition
21. Which of the following reforms has been suggested to improve the Anti-Defection Law?
A) Reducing the role of the Speaker in defection cases
B) Complete abolition of the law
C) Making party discipline more stringent
D) Preventing judicial review
Answer: A) Reducing the role of the Speaker in defection cases
22. The 91st Amendment limited the size of the council of ministers to:
A) 10% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha
B) 15% of the total strength of the House
C) 20% of the total strength of the House
D) No such limit imposed
Answer: B) 15% of the total strength of the House
23. Which of the following criticisms is often leveled against the Anti-Defection Law?
A) It promotes political stability
B) It curbs individual freedom of elected representatives
C) It encourages cross-party alliances
D) It increases transparency in governance
Answer: B) It curbs individual freedom of elected representatives
24. Defections were rampant in which period, leading to the introduction of the Anti-Defection Law?
A) Early 1950s
B) 1960s
C) Late 1970s and 1980s
D) 1990s
Answer: C) Late 1970s and 1980s
25. The Speaker’s decision under the Anti-Defection Law is final unless challenged in:
A) Parliament
B) The Supreme Court
C) The President’s Office
D) The Election Commission
Answer: B) The Supreme Court
26. Which of the following is NOT a provision of the Anti-Defection Law?
A) Disqualification for defection
B) Protection of split within the party
C) Allowance for dissent within the party
D) Protection for merger of parties
Answer: C) Allowance for dissent within the party
27. Which is an argument in favor of the Anti-Defection Law?
A) It encourages individual freedom in legislative houses
B) It strengthens party discipline and political stability
C) It curbs political alliances
D) It reduces party coalitions
Answer: B) It strengthens party discipline and political stability
28. The Anti-Defection Law applies to which of the following?
A) Elected and nominated members of Parliament and State Legislatures
B) Only elected members of the Lok Sabha
C) Only nominated members of Rajya Sabha
D) Independent candidates
Answer: A) Elected and nominated members of Parliament and State Legislatures
29. What is one of the primary criticisms of the Anti-Defection Law?
A) It promotes democratic debate
B) It encourages defections within parties
C) It undermines the freedom of elected representatives
D) It allows too much judicial interference
Answer: C) It undermines the freedom of elected representatives
30. The Anti-Defection Law was introduced to address the growing issue of:
A) Political stability
B) Corruption in elections
C) Frequent defection by elected representatives
D) Formation of regional parties
Answer: C) Frequent defection by elected representatives
These questions cover various aspects of the Anti-Defection Law, including its background, provisions, criticisms, and impacts on Indian democracy.
