Chapter 7: Evolution – MCQs
🟢 Part 1: Evolution (Q1–Q25)
Q1. The theory of natural selection was proposed by
a) Lamarck
b) Darwin and Wallace
c) Weismann
d) De Vries
Answer: b) Darwin and Wallace
Explanation: Both independently conceived natural selection; Darwin detailed it in On the Origin of Species (1859).
Q2. “Use and disuse” leading to inheritance of acquired characters was proposed by
a) Darwin
b) Lamarck
c) Mendel
d) Lyell
Answer: b) Lamarck
Explanation: Lamarck suggested organs used more become stronger and are inherited—later disproven.
Q3. The raw material for evolution is
a) Natural selection
b) Mutation and recombination
c) Migration
d) Isolation
Answer: b) Mutation and recombination
Explanation: They create heritable genetic variation on which selection and drift act.
Q4. Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium assumes
a) Small population
b) No mutation, no migration, random mating, large population, no selection
c) Directional selection present
d) Assortative mating
Answer: b)
Explanation: These conditions keep allele frequencies constant across generations.
Q5. A classic example of natural selection from industrial England is
a) Darwin’s finches
b) Peppered moth (Biston betularia)
c) Galápagos tortoises
d) Giraffe necks
Answer: b)
Explanation: Soot darkening favored melanics; after pollution control, light forms rebounded.
Q6. Adaptive radiation is best illustrated by
a) Human races
b) Darwin’s finches
c) Peppered moths
d) Homologous limbs
Answer: b)
Explanation: From a common ancestor, finches diversified into many niches (beak types).
Q7. Homologous organs indicate
a) Convergent evolution
b) Divergent evolution and common ancestry
c) Analogous adaptation
d) No evolutionary relationship
Answer: b)
Explanation: Similar structure, different function → divergence from a common ancestor.
Q8. Analogous organs arise due to
a) Divergence
b) Convergence
c) Genetic drift
d) Founder effect
Answer: b) Convergence
Explanation: Similar function, different origin (e.g., wings of birds and insects) due to similar selection pressures.
Q9. Genetic drift is most pronounced in
a) Large populations
b) Infinite populations
c) Small populations
d) Panmictic populations
Answer: c) Small populations
Explanation: Random changes in allele frequencies are stronger when populations are small.
Q10. Founder effect is a special case of
a) Mutation
b) Selection
c) Genetic drift
d) Migration
Answer: c) Genetic drift
Explanation: A few colonizers carry a non-representative gene sample, shaping descendant gene pool.
Q11. Stabilizing selection favors
a) Both extremes
b) Intermediate phenotype
c) One extreme only
d) New mutations
Answer: b) Intermediate phenotype
Explanation: Reduces variance, maintains mean—common in stable environments.
Q12. Directional selection results in
a) Shift of mean toward one extreme
b) Increase in both extremes
c) Maintenance of polymorphism
d) Random fluctuation
Answer: a)
Explanation: One extreme phenotype has higher fitness; population mean moves accordingly.
Q13. Disruptive selection
a) Favors intermediates
b) Favors both extremes, splits population
c) Eliminates extremes
d) Has no effect on variance
Answer: b)
Explanation: Can lead to bimodal distribution and potential speciation.
Q14. The unit of evolution (where evolution actually occurs) is the
a) Gene
b) Individual
c) Population
d) Species
Answer: c) Population
Explanation: Allele frequency changes occur in populations over time.
Q15. Bottleneck effect occurs when
a) Mutation rate increases
b) Sudden drastic reduction in population size
c) Migration increases
d) Selection is stabilizing
Answer: b)
Explanation: Reduces genetic diversity; surviving sample may be non-representative.
Q16. Evidence for evolution from comparative anatomy includes
a) Fossils only
b) Vestigial organs and homologous structures
c) Biogeography alone
d) Molecular clocks
Answer: b)
Explanation: Homology and vestigiality reflect descent with modification.
Q17. The biochemical evidence for evolution is best supported by
a) Similar blood groups
b) Universal genetic code and conserved proteins
c) Analogous organs
d) Adaptive radiation
Answer: b)
Explanation: Nearly universal code and sequence homology imply common ancestry.
Q18. The earliest life forms were most likely
a) Aerobic eukaryotes
b) Anaerobic prokaryotes
c) Photosynthetic plants
d) Fungi
Answer: b)
Explanation: Early Earth lacked oxygen; anaerobic chemosynthetic bacteria likely first.
Q19. Endosymbiotic theory explains origin of
a) Ribosomes
b) Nucleus
c) Mitochondria and chloroplasts
d) Golgi bodies
Answer: c)
Explanation: These organelles have their own DNA, ribosomes, and replicate by fission.
Q20. The “molecular clock” is based on
a) Constant selection pressure
b) Approximate constancy of neutral mutation rates
c) Fossil ages only
d) Environmental changes
Answer: b)
Explanation: Neutral substitutions accumulate roughly linearly with time, enabling divergence estimates.
Q21. Speciation by geographic isolation is
a) Sympatric
b) Allopatric
c) Parapatric
d) Polyploid
Answer: b) Allopatric
Explanation: Physical barriers split populations → divergence and reproductive isolation.
Q22. Prezygotic isolation includes
a) Hybrid sterility
b) Gametic incompatibility, temporal and behavioral isolation
c) Hybrid breakdown
d) Hybrid inviability only
Answer: b)
Explanation: These prevent fertilization; postzygotic barriers act after zygote formation.
Q23. The predominant human ancestor known for tool use and larger braincase among early Homo is
a) Australopithecus afarensis
b) Homo habilis
c) Homo erectus
d) Neanderthalensis
Answer: b) Homo habilis
Explanation: “Handy man” (≈2.4–1.4 mya) shows earliest clear stone tool culture.
Q24. Archaeopteryx is a classic fossil showing
a) Convergent evolution
b) Mosaic evolution with reptilian and avian traits
c) Adaptive radiation in mammals
d) Atavism
Answer: b)
Explanation: Possessed teeth and tail (reptilian) plus feathers (avian), bridging groups.
Q25. The best definition of evolution in population genetics is
a) Survival of the fittest
b) Change in individuals over time
c) Change in allele frequencies in a population over generations
d) Origin of new species only
Answer: c)
Explanation: Evolution is quantified as shifts in gene pool composition across generations.
🟢 Part 2: Evolution (Q26–Q50)
Q26. Who proposed the “Inheritance of Acquired Characters”?
a) Darwin
b) Wallace
c) Lamarck
d) Weismann
Answer: c) Lamarck
Explanation: Lamarck believed that characteristics acquired during an organism’s life (e.g., giraffe’s long neck) were inherited.
Q27. Who disproved Lamarckism experimentally by cutting mouse tails?
a) Darwin
b) Weismann
c) Hugo de Vries
d) Morgan
Answer: b) Weismann
Explanation: Weismann cut tails for generations; offspring still had tails, showing acquired traits aren’t inherited.
Q28. Who proposed the Mutation Theory of evolution?
a) Lamarck
b) Darwin
c) Hugo de Vries
d) Mendel
Answer: c) Hugo de Vries
Explanation: He proposed sudden mutations, not gradual changes, as the source of new species.
Q29. The term “survival of the fittest” was coined by
a) Darwin
b) Wallace
c) Spencer
d) Lyell
Answer: c) Spencer
Explanation: Herbert Spencer coined it; Darwin later adopted it in explaining natural selection.
Q30. The study of fossils is called
a) Evolutionary biology
b) Palaeontology
c) Comparative anatomy
d) Embryology
Answer: b) Palaeontology
Explanation: Fossil study provides direct evidence of evolution and past life forms.
Q31. The oldest known fossils are of
a) Dinosaurs
b) Bacteria (prokaryotes)
c) Amphibians
d) Birds
Answer: b) Bacteria (prokaryotes)
Explanation: Stromatolites (~3.5 billion years old) contain fossilized prokaryotes.
Q32. Which period is called the “Age of Reptiles”?
a) Paleozoic
b) Mesozoic
c) Cenozoic
d) Precambrian
Answer: b) Mesozoic
Explanation: Reptiles, including dinosaurs, dominated during the Mesozoic era.
Q33. The “Age of Mammals” refers to
a) Paleozoic
b) Mesozoic
c) Cenozoic
d) Cambrian
Answer: c) Cenozoic
Explanation: Mammals radiated and dominated in the Cenozoic era, continuing today.
Q34. Which is the correct sequence of human evolution?
a) Homo erectus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Neanderthal
b) Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Neanderthal → Homo sapiens
c) Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Australopithecus → Homo sapiens
d) Australopithecus → Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Neanderthal
Answer: b)
Explanation: Early hominids evolved in sequence: Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Neanderthal → modern humans.
Q35. Which evidence shows similarity in early embryos of vertebrates?
a) Paleontology
b) Comparative embryology
c) Molecular biology
d) Adaptive radiation
Answer: b) Comparative embryology
Explanation: Vertebrate embryos show gill slits and tails, evidencing common ancestry.
Q36. Which scientist explained organic evolution by natural selection?
a) Darwin
b) Lamarck
c) Mendel
d) Hugo de Vries
Answer: a) Darwin
Explanation: Darwin’s theory emphasized natural selection acting on variations.
Q37. The wings of butterfly and bat are
a) Homologous
b) Analogous
c) Vestigial
d) Atavistic
Answer: b) Analogous
Explanation: Functionally similar (flying), structurally different in origin → convergence.
Q38. A vestigial organ in humans is
a) Heart
b) Appendix
c) Kidney
d) Brain
Answer: b) Appendix
Explanation: The vermiform appendix has lost digestive function; it is vestigial.
Q39. Which is the best example of adaptive radiation in mammals?
a) Whales and sharks
b) Australian marsupials
c) Bats and birds
d) Man and ape
Answer: b) Australian marsupials
Explanation: Marsupials evolved into diverse forms (wolf, mole, kangaroo) from one ancestor.
Q40. Which type of evolution produces analogous organs?
a) Divergent evolution
b) Convergent evolution
c) Parallel evolution
d) Co-evolution
Answer: b) Convergent evolution
Explanation: Unrelated species evolve similar adaptations under similar environments.
Q41. Which one is NOT a direct evidence of organic evolution?
a) Fossils
b) Homologous organs
c) Vestigial organs
d) Analogous organs
Answer: d) Analogous organs
Explanation: Analogous organs are evidence of convergent evolution, not direct descent.
Q42. Which evolutionary force introduces new alleles into a population?
a) Natural selection
b) Genetic drift
c) Mutation
d) Stabilizing selection
Answer: c) Mutation
Explanation: Mutation is the ultimate source of new alleles in a gene pool.
Q43. The genetic equilibrium in a population can be disturbed by
a) Random mating
b) Mutations and selection
c) Large population size
d) No migration
Answer: b) Mutations and selection
Explanation: Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium is disrupted by mutation, selection, drift, migration, non-random mating.
Q44. The concept of chemical origin of life was proposed by
a) Oparin and Haldane
b) Miller and Urey
c) Weismann
d) Darwin
Answer: a) Oparin and Haldane
Explanation: They proposed “primordial soup” theory: life originated from organic molecules.
Q45. Miller–Urey experiment synthesized
a) DNA and RNA
b) Amino acids
c) Proteins
d) ATP
Answer: b) Amino acids
Explanation: In a reducing atmosphere simulation, they obtained amino acids (glycine, alanine).
Q46. Which gases were used in Miller’s experiment?
a) Oxygen, CO₂, N₂
b) CH₄, NH₃, H₂, H₂O vapor
c) O₂, CH₄, CO₂
d) H₂S, O₂, N₂
Answer: b)
Explanation: They simulated primitive reducing atmosphere: methane, ammonia, hydrogen, water vapor.
Q47. Which is the most accepted theory of the origin of life?
a) Theory of special creation
b) Cosmozoic theory
c) Biogenesis
d) Chemical evolution theory
Answer: d) Chemical evolution theory
Explanation: Supported by Miller’s experiment, it states life originated chemically on early Earth.
Q48. Which of the following gases was absent in primitive Earth’s atmosphere?
a) Oxygen
b) Hydrogen
c) Ammonia
d) Methane
Answer: a) Oxygen
Explanation: The early atmosphere was reducing, oxygen appeared later from photosynthesis.
Q49. Which process explains the sudden appearance of new species in fossil records?
a) Gradualism
b) Punctuated equilibrium
c) Genetic drift
d) Natural selection
Answer: b) Punctuated equilibrium
Explanation: Proposed by Eldredge and Gould, evolution can occur in rapid bursts separated by stasis.
Q50. Which is the most recent ancestor of modern humans?
a) Homo habilis
b) Homo erectus
c) Neanderthal man
d) Cro-Magnon man
Answer: d) Cro-Magnon man
Explanation: Cro-Magnons (~40,000 years ago) are considered direct ancestors of modern Homo sapiens.
🟢 Part 3: Evolution (Q51–Q75)
Q51. Who is regarded as the “Father of Evolutionary Biology”?
a) Lamarck
b) Darwin
c) Wallace
d) Mendel
Answer: b) Darwin
Explanation: Charles Darwin, through natural selection, laid the foundation of evolutionary biology.
Q52. Which evolutionary concept explains “the survival of those best adapted to the environment”?
a) Lamarckism
b) Darwinism
c) Mutation theory
d) Chemical evolution
Answer: b) Darwinism
Explanation: Darwin’s natural selection means better-adapted organisms survive and reproduce.
Q53. The discovery of transitional fossils supports
a) Sudden creation
b) Organic evolution
c) Special creation
d) Fixity of species
Answer: b) Organic evolution
Explanation: Transitional fossils (e.g., Archaeopteryx) show intermediate features between groups.
Q54. The preserved remains of ancient organisms are called
a) Vestiges
b) Fossils
c) Analogues
d) Homologues
Answer: b) Fossils
Explanation: Fossils provide direct evidence of life from earlier geological periods.
Q55. Which group of animals flourished during the Paleozoic era?
a) Dinosaurs
b) Fishes and amphibians
c) Mammals
d) Birds
Answer: b) Fishes and amphibians
Explanation: Paleozoic era saw dominance of fishes (Devonian = “age of fishes”) and rise of amphibians.
Q56. Which evidence of evolution is provided by molecular biology?
a) Fossils
b) Homologous organs
c) Similarity in DNA and proteins
d) Vestigial organs
Answer: c) Similarity in DNA and proteins
Explanation: Similarities in cytochrome c, hemoglobin, etc., across species show common ancestry.
Q57. The term “atavism” refers to
a) Disappearance of traits
b) Reappearance of ancestral characters
c) Development of new organs
d) Vestigial organs
Answer: b) Reappearance of ancestral characters
Explanation: Example: human babies sometimes born with a tail (ancestral feature).
Q58. Which evolutionary force tends to reduce genetic differences between populations?
a) Genetic drift
b) Natural selection
c) Gene flow (migration)
d) Mutation
Answer: c) Gene flow (migration)
Explanation: Migration introduces new alleles and homogenizes populations.
Q59. Adaptive convergence results in
a) Analogous organs
b) Homologous organs
c) Vestigial organs
d) Recombinants
Answer: a) Analogous organs
Explanation: Similar adaptations evolve independently in unrelated species.
Q60. The geographical distribution of animals and plants provides evidence through
a) Embryology
b) Biogeography
c) Anatomy
d) Mutation
Answer: b) Biogeography
Explanation: Distinct species on isolated islands suggest independent evolution.
Q61. The earliest human ancestor capable of walking erect was
a) Homo habilis
b) Australopithecus
c) Neanderthal
d) Cro-Magnon
Answer: b) Australopithecus
Explanation: Known as “Southern ape,” Australopithecus walked erect ~4 mya.
Q62. Which human ancestor is known as “Java man”?
a) Homo habilis
b) Homo erectus
c) Neanderthal
d) Cro-Magnon
Answer: b) Homo erectus
Explanation: Fossils of Homo erectus were found in Java by Dubois (1891).
Q63. The “Out of Africa” theory suggests
a) Humans evolved independently on continents
b) Modern humans evolved in Africa and spread globally
c) Humans came from Asia
d) Cro-Magnons originated in Europe
Answer: b)
Explanation: Homo sapiens evolved in Africa ~200,000 years ago and migrated worldwide.
Q64. Which of the following is NOT a vestigial organ in humans?
a) Appendix
b) Coccyx
c) Wisdom teeth
d) Heart
Answer: d) Heart
Explanation: Heart is functional; appendix, coccyx, wisdom teeth are vestigial.
Q65. Which principle states that “the geological features of Earth were shaped gradually over time”?
a) Catastrophism
b) Uniformitarianism
c) Gradualism
d) Punctuated equilibrium
Answer: b) Uniformitarianism
Explanation: Proposed by Lyell: present processes explain past geological changes.
Q66. Which evolutionary force introduces the most novel alleles into populations?
a) Mutation
b) Genetic drift
c) Migration
d) Selection
Answer: a) Mutation
Explanation: Mutations are the ultimate source of genetic novelty.
Q67. Hardy–Weinberg law states that allele frequencies remain constant if
a) Mutation occurs
b) Selection is operating
c) Mating is random, population is large, no selection/migration/mutation
d) Drift occurs
Answer: c)
Explanation: These ideal conditions maintain genetic equilibrium.
Q68. The concept of “punctuated equilibrium” was proposed by
a) Darwin and Wallace
b) Eldredge and Gould
c) Lamarck and de Vries
d) Hardy and Weinberg
Answer: b) Eldredge and Gould
Explanation: They suggested evolution happens in rapid bursts, not gradually.
Q69. Which type of fossils help to establish evolutionary links between groups?
a) Petrified fossils
b) Connecting (transitional) fossils
c) Cast fossils
d) Molds
Answer: b)
Explanation: Transitional fossils (e.g., Archaeopteryx) connect birds and reptiles.
Q70. Which principle supports that “ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny”?
a) Lamarckism
b) Biogenetic law (Haeckel)
c) Darwinism
d) Neutral theory
Answer: b) Biogenetic law (Haeckel)
Explanation: Embryonic stages resemble ancestral adult forms.
Q71. The carbon-dating method is based on the decay of
a) C-12
b) C-14
c) U-238
d) K-40
Answer: b) C-14
Explanation: C-14 half-life is used to date fossils up to ~50,000 years.
Q72. Which is the most primitive primate?
a) Lemur
b) Gorilla
c) Chimpanzee
d) Orangutan
Answer: a) Lemur
Explanation: Lemurs represent early primates, retaining primitive features.
Q73. Which force of evolution can create new species in absence of selection?
a) Mutation
b) Genetic drift
c) Migration
d) All of these
Answer: b) Genetic drift
Explanation: Drift, especially in small populations, can lead to fixation and speciation.
Q74. The adaptive significance of melanism in peppered moths is
a) Avoiding predation by camouflage
b) Faster reproduction
c) Higher fertility
d) Resistance to disease
Answer: a)
Explanation: Dark moths camouflaged on soot-darkened trees, avoiding predation.
Q75. The closest living relatives of humans are
a) Gorillas
b) Chimpanzees and bonobos
c) Orangutans
d) Gibbons
Answer: b) Chimpanzees and bonobos
Explanation: Molecular studies show ~98–99% DNA similarity with humans.
🟢 Part 4: Evolution (Q76–Q100)
Q76. The evolutionary history of an organism is called
a) Ontogeny
b) Phylogeny
c) Palaeontology
d) Taxonomy
Answer: b) Phylogeny
Explanation: Phylogeny traces evolutionary lineage; ontogeny is individual development.
Q77. Which is NOT a postzygotic isolating mechanism?
a) Hybrid sterility
b) Hybrid inviability
c) Temporal isolation
d) Hybrid breakdown
Answer: c) Temporal isolation
Explanation: Temporal isolation (different breeding seasons) is prezygotic; others are postzygotic.
Q78. The best evidence of organic evolution is provided by
a) Anatomy
b) Fossil record
c) Embryology
d) Biogeography
Answer: b) Fossil record
Explanation: Fossils give direct historical evidence of evolutionary changes.
Q79. Which factor is responsible for adaptive radiation?
a) Similar environment
b) Available ecological niches
c) Common ancestry
d) All of these
Answer: d) All of these
Explanation: Adaptive radiation arises when a common ancestor diversifies to fill new ecological niches.
Q80. The term “genetic equilibrium” refers to
a) Fixity of species
b) Constant allele frequency in a population
c) Rapid speciation
d) Constant phenotype
Answer: b)
Explanation: Hardy–Weinberg principle describes genetic equilibrium when allele frequencies remain unchanged.
Q81. Which condition is required for Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium?
a) Mutation
b) Migration
c) Large population size
d) Natural selection
Answer: c) Large population size
Explanation: Large size reduces genetic drift, one of the assumptions of equilibrium.
Q82. Which human ancestor discovered fire and used tools extensively?
a) Australopithecus
b) Homo habilis
c) Homo erectus
d) Neanderthal
Answer: c) Homo erectus
Explanation: Homo erectus controlled fire, hunted, and crafted tools.
Q83. Which human ancestor is known for cave paintings?
a) Neanderthal man
b) Cro-Magnon man
c) Homo habilis
d) Homo erectus
Answer: b) Cro-Magnon man
Explanation: Cro-Magnons created cave art and sophisticated tools; they were direct ancestors of modern humans.
Q84. Which organ in snakes is considered vestigial?
a) Tongue
b) Hind limb bones (pelvic girdle)
c) Lungs
d) Eyes
Answer: b) Hind limb bones
Explanation: Snakes retain reduced pelvic girdle and hind limb remnants internally.
Q85. Which type of selection increases genetic diversity within a population?
a) Stabilizing
b) Directional
c) Disruptive
d) All of these
Answer: c) Disruptive
Explanation: Disruptive selection favors both extremes, increasing diversity.
Q86. Which scientist is known as the “father of palaeontology”?
a) Charles Lyell
b) Georges Cuvier
c) Darwin
d) Wallace
Answer: b) Georges Cuvier
Explanation: Cuvier studied fossils extensively and is considered father of palaeontology.
Q87. “Missing links” are organisms that
a) Have only extinct features
b) Possess features of two different groups
c) Show no evolutionary traits
d) Are vestigial
Answer: b)
Explanation: Example: Archaeopteryx connects reptiles and birds, showing transitional features.
Q88. Which human ancestor first buried their dead?
a) Australopithecus
b) Homo habilis
c) Homo erectus
d) Neanderthal man
Answer: d) Neanderthal man
Explanation: Neanderthals (~150,000–40,000 years ago) showed cultural practices like burial.
Q89. Which evolutionary force is completely random?
a) Mutation
b) Natural selection
c) Adaptation
d) Migration
Answer: a) Mutation
Explanation: Mutations arise spontaneously without direction; selection determines their fate.
Q90. “Industrial melanism” in peppered moths is an example of
a) Disruptive selection
b) Directional selection
c) Stabilizing selection
d) Genetic drift
Answer: b) Directional selection
Explanation: One extreme phenotype (dark form) was favored under polluted conditions.
Q91. The homologous structure among the following is
a) Wings of bird and bat
b) Wings of bat and butterfly
c) Flipper of whale and fin of fish
d) Eye of octopus and human
Answer: a) Wings of bird and bat
Explanation: Both wings have similar skeletal structure (forelimbs), indicating common ancestry.
Q92. Which period is known as the “Age of Amphibians”?
a) Devonian
b) Carboniferous (late Paleozoic)
c) Jurassic
d) Cretaceous
Answer: b) Carboniferous
Explanation: Amphibians were dominant during Carboniferous period of Paleozoic.
Q93. Which of the following supports Darwin’s theory most strongly today?
a) Fossils
b) Biogeography
c) Comparative anatomy
d) Molecular biology
Answer: d) Molecular biology
Explanation: DNA/protein sequence similarities give the strongest evidence for common ancestry.
Q94. The horse evolution series (Eohippus to Equus) shows
a) Adaptive convergence
b) Gradualism (progressive changes)
c) Punctuated equilibrium
d) No evolution
Answer: b) Gradualism
Explanation: Fossils show gradual increase in size, reduced toes, and better teeth adaptation.
Q95. The idea that life originated from outer space is called
a) Biogenesis
b) Abiogenesis
c) Panspermia
d) Special creation
Answer: c) Panspermia
Explanation: Panspermia suggests spores or life seeds came from outer space (meteorites).
Q96. Which organism is a living fossil?
a) Peripatus
b) Latimeria (coelacanth fish)
c) Limulus (king crab)
d) All of these
Answer: d) All of these
Explanation: These organisms resemble ancient ancestors with little evolutionary change.
Q97. Who wrote the book On the Origin of Species?
a) Wallace
b) Darwin
c) Lamarck
d) Mendel
Answer: b) Darwin
Explanation: Darwin’s 1859 book presented evidence and mechanism of natural selection.
Q98. Which law of inheritance did Darwin fail to explain correctly?
a) Law of dominance
b) Law of segregation
c) Law of independent assortment
d) All of these
Answer: d) All of these
Explanation: Darwin lacked knowledge of Mendel’s genetic laws; blending inheritance was assumed.
Q99. Which gas released by early cyanobacteria changed Earth’s atmosphere?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Oxygen
c) Methane
d) Ammonia
Answer: b) Oxygen
Explanation: Cyanobacteria carried out photosynthesis, releasing oxygen, leading to aerobic life.
Q100. Evolution in terms of modern synthesis (Neo-Darwinism) is defined as
a) Change in individuals
b) Change in allele frequencies in populations over time
c) Mutation only
d) Random fluctuations
Answer: b)
Explanation: Modern synthesis combines Darwin’s selection with Mendelian genetics: evolution = change in allele frequencies in populations.
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