Chapter 8: Human Health and Diseases – MCQs
🟢 Part 1: Human Health and Disease (Q1–Q25)
Q1. The causative agent of malaria is
a) Plasmodium
b) Entamoeba histolytica
c) Trypanosoma
d) Leishmania
Answer: a) Plasmodium
Explanation: Malaria is caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Plasmodium (vivax, falciparum, malariae, ovale).
Q2. Which mosquito transmits malaria?
a) Culex
b) Aedes
c) Anopheles
d) Culiseta
Answer: c) Anopheles
Explanation: Female Anopheles mosquito is the vector for malaria.
Q3. The infective stage of malarial parasite in humans is
a) Gametocyte
b) Sporozoite
c) Merozoite
d) Trophozoite
Answer: b) Sporozoite
Explanation: Sporozoites enter human blood from mosquito saliva and infect liver cells.
Q4. Amoebiasis is caused by
a) Plasmodium vivax
b) Entamoeba histolytica
c) Trypanosoma brucei
d) Leishmania donovani
Answer: b) Entamoeba histolytica
Explanation: This protozoan parasite infects the intestine and causes amoebic dysentery.
Q5. The disease “Kala-azar” is caused by
a) Plasmodium
b) Leishmania donovani
c) Trypanosoma
d) Entamoeba
Answer: b) Leishmania donovani
Explanation: It causes visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar), transmitted by sandfly.
Q6. Elephantiasis is caused by
a) Wuchereria bancrofti
b) Plasmodium
c) Trypanosoma
d) Entamoeba
Answer: a) Wuchereria bancrofti
Explanation: A filarial worm transmitted by Culex mosquito, blocking lymph vessels.
Q7. Which mosquito transmits dengue fever?
a) Anopheles
b) Culex
c) Aedes aegypti
d) Sandfly
Answer: c) Aedes aegypti
Explanation: Dengue virus spreads through the bite of Aedes aegypti.
Q8. Which disease is known as “sleeping sickness”?
a) Kala-azar
b) Trypanosomiasis
c) Filariasis
d) Malaria
Answer: b) Trypanosomiasis
Explanation: Caused by Trypanosoma brucei, transmitted by tsetse fly.
Q9. Which bacterium causes tuberculosis (TB)?
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Clostridium tetani
c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d) Salmonella typhi
Answer: c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation: TB mainly affects lungs; spreads via droplets.
Q10. The Mantoux test is used for diagnosis of
a) Malaria
b) Tuberculosis
c) Typhoid
d) AIDS
Answer: b) Tuberculosis
Explanation: It detects TB infection by delayed hypersensitivity reaction.
Q11. Typhoid is caused by
a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b) Salmonella typhi
c) Clostridium tetani
d) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Answer: b) Salmonella typhi
Explanation: It spreads via contaminated food and water (fecal-oral route).
Q12. The confirmatory test for typhoid is
a) Mantoux test
b) Widal test
c) ELISA
d) Western blot
Answer: b) Widal test
Explanation: Detects antibodies against Salmonella typhi.
Q13. Pneumonia is caused by
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae
b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c) Salmonella typhi
d) Clostridium tetani
Answer: a)
Explanation: Pneumonia infects alveoli, causing fluid accumulation.
Q14. Tetanus is caused by
a) Clostridium tetani
b) Salmonella typhi
c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d) Vibrio cholerae
Answer: a) Clostridium tetani
Explanation: Produces a neurotoxin causing muscular spasms and lockjaw.
Q15. Which virus causes common cold?
a) Influenza virus
b) Rhinovirus
c) Dengue virus
d) Adenovirus
Answer: b) Rhinovirus
Explanation: Rhinoviruses infect the nasal epithelium, causing common cold.
Q16. AIDS is caused by
a) HBV
b) HIV
c) HSV
d) HPV
Answer: b) HIV
Explanation: HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) attacks helper T lymphocytes.
Q17. The main receptor for HIV on host cells is
a) CD4 on T-helper cells
b) MHC-II molecules
c) CD8 on cytotoxic cells
d) IgG
Answer: a) CD4 on T-helper cells
Explanation: HIV binds CD4 receptors on T-helper cells, leading to immune suppression.
Q18. Which enzyme is carried by HIV for replication?
a) DNA polymerase
b) RNA polymerase
c) Reverse transcriptase
d) Ligase
Answer: c) Reverse transcriptase
Explanation: It converts viral RNA into DNA in host cells.
Q19. Cancer-causing genes are called
a) Proto-oncogenes
b) Oncogenes
c) Tumor suppressor genes
d) Apoptosis genes
Answer: b) Oncogenes
Explanation: Mutated proto-oncogenes become oncogenes, leading to uncontrolled cell growth.
Q20. Which virus is associated with cervical cancer?
a) HBV
b) HIV
c) HPV
d) Epstein–Barr virus
Answer: c) HPV
Explanation: Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) causes cervical carcinoma.
Q21. Which disease is caused by HBV?
a) Jaundice and liver cancer
b) AIDS
c) Influenza
d) Typhoid
Answer: a) Jaundice and liver cancer
Explanation: HBV causes hepatitis B, leading to chronic liver disease and cancer.
Q22. Allergy is due to release of
a) Dopamine
b) Histamine
c) Serotonin
d) Adrenaline
Answer: b) Histamine
Explanation: Mast cells release histamine → swelling, sneezing, irritation.
Q23. Which type of immunity is vaccination?
a) Natural active
b) Artificial active
c) Natural passive
d) Artificial passive
Answer: b) Artificial active
Explanation: Vaccines stimulate immune system to form memory cells.
Q24. The first vaccine developed was against
a) Polio
b) Smallpox
c) Rabies
d) Measles
Answer: b) Smallpox
Explanation: Edward Jenner developed the first vaccine against smallpox.
Q25. Which cells provide cell-mediated immunity?
a) B-cells
b) T-cells
c) Mast cells
d) Macrophages
Answer: b) T-cells
Explanation: T-lymphocytes (cytotoxic T cells) destroy infected or cancerous cells.
🟢 Part 2: Human Health and Disease (Q26–Q50)
Q26. Antibodies are produced by
a) T-lymphocytes
b) B-lymphocytes (plasma cells)
c) Macrophages
d) Mast cells
Answer: b) B-lymphocytes (plasma cells)
Explanation: Plasma cells (differentiated B-cells) secrete specific antibodies to fight antigens.
Q27. Which antibody is present in colostrum (mother’s milk)?
a) IgM
b) IgG
c) IgE
d) IgA
Answer: d) IgA
Explanation: IgA provides passive immunity to infants through mother’s milk.
Q28. The most abundant antibody in human blood is
a) IgA
b) IgM
c) IgG
d) IgE
Answer: c) IgG
Explanation: IgG forms ~75% of serum antibodies and provides long-term immunity.
Q29. Which type of immunity is provided by injection of antiserum?
a) Natural active
b) Artificial active
c) Natural passive
d) Artificial passive
Answer: d) Artificial passive
Explanation: Ready-made antibodies are introduced into the body for immediate protection.
Q30. Which disease is prevented by the BCG vaccine?
a) Polio
b) Tuberculosis
c) Typhoid
d) Measles
Answer: b) Tuberculosis
Explanation: Bacille Calmette–Guérin (BCG) vaccine protects against TB.
Q31. The Salk vaccine is used against
a) Typhoid
b) Hepatitis
c) Polio
d) Measles
Answer: c) Polio
Explanation: Salk vaccine (inactivated polio vaccine) prevents poliomyelitis.
Q32. The Sabin vaccine is given
a) Orally for polio
b) By injection for TB
c) By nasal spray for influenza
d) By skin scratch for smallpox
Answer: a) Orally for polio
Explanation: Sabin vaccine is a live attenuated oral polio vaccine (OPV).
Q33. Which disease is not caused by a virus?
a) Polio
b) Cholera
c) Rabies
d) Measles
Answer: b) Cholera
Explanation: Cholera is caused by bacterium Vibrio cholerae, others by viruses.
Q34. Which is NOT a sexually transmitted disease (STD)?
a) Syphilis
b) Gonorrhea
c) Malaria
d) Genital warts
Answer: c) Malaria
Explanation: Malaria is mosquito-borne; other options are STDs.
Q35. The drug used to treat malaria is
a) Penicillin
b) Quinine/Chloroquine
c) Tetracycline
d) Streptomycin
Answer: b) Quinine/Chloroquine
Explanation: These antimalarials inhibit parasite growth inside RBCs.
Q36. Ringworm in humans is caused by
a) Bacteria
b) Fungi (Dermatophytes)
c) Virus
d) Protozoa
Answer: b) Fungi (Dermatophytes)
Explanation: Fungi like Microsporum and Trichophyton cause ringworm infection.
Q37. Which toxin is produced by Clostridium tetani?
a) Exotoxin
b) Endotoxin
c) Enterotoxin
d) Mycotoxin
Answer: a) Exotoxin
Explanation: C. tetani produces a potent exotoxin (tetanospasmin) causing muscular spasms.
Q38. Which disease is caused by Epstein–Barr virus (EBV)?
a) Common cold
b) Burkitt’s lymphoma
c) Polio
d) Hepatitis B
Answer: b) Burkitt’s lymphoma
Explanation: EBV is linked to cancers like Burkitt’s lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
Q39. Which is the main causative agent of syphilis?
a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b) Treponema pallidum
c) Haemophilus ducreyi
d) Chlamydia trachomatis
Answer: b) Treponema pallidum
Explanation: A spirochete bacterium causing syphilis, an STD.
Q40. Which is the main causative agent of gonorrhea?
a) Treponema pallidum
b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
c) Chlamydia trachomatis
d) Haemophilus ducreyi
Answer: b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Explanation: A Gram-negative diplococcus responsible for gonorrhea.
Q41. Which drug is commonly abused as a depressant?
a) Heroin (smack)
b) LSD
c) Cocaine
d) Amphetamine
Answer: a) Heroin (smack)
Explanation: Heroin is a depressant, slowing down CNS activity.
Q42. Which drug is known as “angel dust”?
a) LSD
b) PCP (Phencyclidine)
c) Cocaine
d) Marijuana
Answer: b) PCP (Phencyclidine)
Explanation: PCP is a hallucinogenic drug called “angel dust.”
Q43. Which part of the brain is affected by alcohol abuse?
a) Cerebellum
b) Medulla oblongata
c) Thalamus
d) Hypothalamus
Answer: a) Cerebellum
Explanation: Alcohol impairs cerebellar function, affecting coordination and balance.
Q44. Which viral disease is characterized by the destruction of helper T cells?
a) Dengue
b) AIDS
c) Hepatitis
d) Influenza
Answer: b) AIDS
Explanation: HIV targets CD4+ T-helper cells, leading to immunodeficiency.
Q45. Which type of cancer affects blood-forming tissues?
a) Carcinoma
b) Sarcoma
c) Leukemia
d) Lymphoma
Answer: c) Leukemia
Explanation: Leukemia is cancer of bone marrow and blood-forming tissues.
Q46. Which type of cancer originates from epithelial tissues?
a) Sarcoma
b) Carcinoma
c) Leukemia
d) Lymphoma
Answer: b) Carcinoma
Explanation: Carcinomas arise from epithelial cells (skin, glandular tissues).
Q47. Which cells kill virus-infected cells in the body?
a) B-cells
b) Helper T-cells
c) Cytotoxic T-cells (Tc cells)
d) Plasma cells
Answer: c) Cytotoxic T-cells (Tc cells)
Explanation: Tc cells (CD8+) destroy infected and cancerous cells directly.
Q48. The most common cancer among Indian women is
a) Breast cancer
b) Cervical cancer
c) Ovarian cancer
d) Uterine cancer
Answer: b) Cervical cancer
Explanation: Cervical cancer, mainly due to HPV, is highly prevalent among Indian women.
Q49. Monoclonal antibodies are used in
a) Vaccination
b) Cancer therapy
c) Antibiotic treatment
d) Viral infections only
Answer: b) Cancer therapy
Explanation: Monoclonal antibodies target specific antigens in cancers.
Q50. The protein produced by virus-infected cells that protects other cells is
a) Histamine
b) Interferon
c) Antibody
d) Complement
Answer: b) Interferon
Explanation: Interferons are antiviral proteins produced by infected cells to protect neighbors.
🟢 Part 3: Human Health and Disease (Q51–Q75)
Q51. Which cells are called “natural killers” of the immune system?
a) Helper T-cells
b) Cytotoxic T-cells
c) NK cells
d) Plasma cells
Answer: c) NK cells
Explanation: Natural Killer (NK) cells kill virus-infected and tumor cells without prior sensitization.
Q52. The first line of defense in the human body is
a) Skin and mucous membranes
b) Antibodies
c) T-cells
d) Interferons
Answer: a) Skin and mucous membranes
Explanation: They act as physical barriers preventing pathogen entry.
Q53. Vaccination works by stimulating
a) Innate immunity
b) Passive immunity
c) Active immunity and memory cell formation
d) Only NK cells
Answer: c) Active immunity and memory cell formation
Explanation: Vaccines induce production of specific memory B and T cells.
Q54. Which disease is prevented by MMR vaccine?
a) Malaria, Mumps, Rubella
b) Measles, Mumps, Rubella
c) Mumps, Malaria, Rabies
d) Measles, Malaria, Rabies
Answer: b) Measles, Mumps, Rubella
Explanation: MMR vaccine protects against three viral diseases in children.
Q55. Which is an autoimmune disease?
a) Malaria
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Tuberculosis
d) Typhoid
Answer: b) Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation: In autoimmune diseases, immune system attacks body’s own cells.
Q56. Allergy can be controlled by
a) Antibiotics
b) Antihistamines
c) Antivirals
d) Antifungals
Answer: b) Antihistamines
Explanation: These drugs block histamine effects, reducing allergic reactions.
Q57. Which vitamin deficiency lowers immunity?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin D
d) All of these
Answer: d) All of these
Explanation: Vitamins A, C, D support immune functions; deficiencies impair resistance.
Q58. Which disease is caused by a protozoan?
a) Malaria
b) Tuberculosis
c) Cholera
d) Measles
Answer: a) Malaria
Explanation: Protozoan Plasmodium causes malaria, transmitted by Anopheles.
Q59. Which parasite causes filariasis?
a) Leishmania
b) Trypanosoma
c) Wuchereria bancrofti
d) Entamoeba
Answer: c) Wuchereria bancrofti
Explanation: Filarial worms block lymph vessels, causing elephantiasis.
Q60. Which vector transmits Japanese encephalitis?
a) Aedes
b) Anopheles
c) Culex
d) Sandfly
Answer: c) Culex
Explanation: Culex mosquitoes spread Japanese encephalitis virus.
Q61. Which organ is primarily affected in hepatitis?
a) Kidney
b) Heart
c) Liver
d) Lungs
Answer: c) Liver
Explanation: Hepatitis viruses (A, B, C, D, E) infect and damage the liver.
Q62. Which of the following diseases is NOT viral?
a) Influenza
b) Measles
c) Cholera
d) Rabies
Answer: c) Cholera
Explanation: Cholera is bacterial (Vibrio cholerae); others are viral.
Q63. A carcinogen is any substance that
a) Kills bacteria
b) Suppresses immunity
c) Causes cancer
d) Stimulates antibody production
Answer: c) Causes cancer
Explanation: Carcinogens induce mutations or uncontrolled cell division.
Q64. Which immune cells secrete antibodies?
a) T-helper cells
b) Plasma B-cells
c) NK cells
d) Cytotoxic T-cells
Answer: b) Plasma B-cells
Explanation: Plasma cells (activated B-cells) produce large amounts of antibodies.
Q65. Which of the following is a zoonotic disease?
a) Rabies
b) AIDS
c) Polio
d) Smallpox
Answer: a) Rabies
Explanation: Zoonoses are diseases transmitted from animals to humans; rabies comes from dog bites.
Q66. The incubation period of rabies in humans is
a) 1–2 days
b) Few hours
c) 1–3 months
d) 5–10 years
Answer: c) 1–3 months
Explanation: Incubation varies but usually around 1–3 months depending on bite site.
Q67. Which vaccine is used for rabies?
a) Salk vaccine
b) Pasteur vaccine
c) BCG vaccine
d) MMR vaccine
Answer: b) Pasteur vaccine
Explanation: Rabies vaccine, developed by Louis Pasteur, prevents rabies infection.
Q68. Which part of the immune system is impaired in AIDS?
a) B-lymphocytes
b) Helper T-cells (CD4+)
c) Cytotoxic T-cells
d) NK cells
Answer: b) Helper T-cells (CD4+)
Explanation: HIV targets CD4+ T-cells, causing immune deficiency.
Q69. Which STD is also called “the clap”?
a) Syphilis
b) Gonorrhea
c) Chlamydia
d) Herpes
Answer: b) Gonorrhea
Explanation: Gonorrhea caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae is historically called “the clap.”
Q70. Which is a fungal disease?
a) Malaria
b) Ringworm
c) Tuberculosis
d) Influenza
Answer: b) Ringworm
Explanation: Dermatophyte fungi cause ringworm infections in skin, nails, hair.
Q71. The “immunological surveillance” against cancer is carried out mainly by
a) B-cells
b) Cytotoxic T-cells and NK cells
c) Helper T-cells
d) Mast cells
Answer: b) Cytotoxic T-cells and NK cells
Explanation: These destroy tumor cells by recognizing abnormal antigens.
Q72. Which disease is characterized by uncontrolled cell division?
a) Tuberculosis
b) Cancer
c) Typhoid
d) Pneumonia
Answer: b) Cancer
Explanation: Cancer is abnormal, uncontrolled proliferation of cells.
Q73. Which parasitic disease can cause chronic anemia due to intestinal bleeding?
a) Amoebiasis
b) Hookworm infection (Ancylostoma)
c) Filariasis
d) Malaria
Answer: b) Hookworm infection (Ancylostoma)
Explanation: Hookworms feed on intestinal blood, causing anemia.
Q74. Which drug is a hallucinogen?
a) Heroin
b) Morphine
c) LSD
d) Alcohol
Answer: c) LSD
Explanation: Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) causes hallucinations.
Q75. Which organ is mainly damaged by excessive alcohol abuse?
a) Kidney
b) Liver
c) Heart
d) Lungs
Answer: b) Liver
Explanation: Chronic alcohol use damages hepatocytes, leading to cirrhosis of the liver.
🟢 Part 4: Human Health and Disease (Q76–Q100)
Q76. Which disease is caused by Haemophilus influenzae?
a) Pneumonia
b) Tuberculosis
c) Influenza
d) Typhoid
Answer: a) Pneumonia
Explanation: Along with Streptococcus pneumoniae, H. influenzae causes bacterial pneumonia.
Q77. Which type of immunity is passed from mother to child through placenta?
a) Artificial active
b) Artificial passive
c) Natural active
d) Natural passive
Answer: d) Natural passive
Explanation: IgG antibodies cross the placenta, giving passive immunity to fetus.
Q78. Which is an example of a viral STD?
a) Gonorrhea
b) Syphilis
c) Genital herpes
d) Chlamydia
Answer: c) Genital herpes
Explanation: Caused by Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV-2), transmitted sexually.
Q79. Which is a bacterial STD?
a) AIDS
b) Gonorrhea
c) Genital warts
d) Herpes
Answer: b) Gonorrhea
Explanation: Caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, a bacterial infection.
Q80. Which type of immunity is given by tetanus antitoxin injection?
a) Natural active
b) Artificial passive
c) Natural passive
d) Artificial active
Answer: b) Artificial passive
Explanation: It provides immediate ready-made antibodies against tetanus toxin.
Q81. Which vaccine provides protection against Hepatitis B?
a) BCG
b) HBV vaccine
c) Salk vaccine
d) OPV
Answer: b) HBV vaccine
Explanation: Recombinant DNA-based HBV vaccine prevents hepatitis B infection.
Q82. Which body fluid is least likely to transmit HIV?
a) Blood
b) Semen
c) Vaginal fluid
d) Saliva
Answer: d) Saliva
Explanation: HIV transmission through saliva is extremely rare compared to blood, semen, vaginal secretions.
Q83. Which test is used for HIV detection?
a) Widal test
b) ELISA
c) Mantoux test
d) Agglutination test
Answer: b) ELISA
Explanation: Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay detects HIV antibodies.
Q84. Which stage of malarial parasite infects human red blood cells?
a) Sporozoite
b) Merozoite
c) Gametocyte
d) Ookinete
Answer: b) Merozoite
Explanation: Merozoites from liver enter RBCs and multiply, causing fever cycles.
Q85. The incubation period of Plasmodium falciparum malaria is about
a) 7–10 days
b) 2–3 weeks
c) 4–6 weeks
d) 1 day
Answer: a) 7–10 days
Explanation: Symptoms appear after sporozoites mature in liver (~7–10 days).
Q86. Which parasite causes Kala-azar?
a) Plasmodium
b) Leishmania donovani
c) Wuchereria bancrofti
d) Trypanosoma
Answer: b) Leishmania donovani
Explanation: Transmitted by sandfly, causes visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar).
Q87. Which organ is mainly affected by Entamoeba histolytica?
a) Liver
b) Small intestine
c) Large intestine
d) Pancreas
Answer: c) Large intestine
Explanation: It invades large intestine, causing amoebic dysentery.
Q88. Which disease is also known as “lockjaw”?
a) Rabies
b) Tetanus
c) Typhoid
d) Influenza
Answer: b) Tetanus
Explanation: Clostridium tetani neurotoxin causes muscle stiffness and lockjaw.
Q89. Which vector transmits filariasis?
a) Sandfly
b) Aedes mosquito
c) Culex mosquito
d) Blackfly
Answer: c) Culex mosquito
Explanation: Culex mosquito transmits filarial worms causing elephantiasis.
Q90. Which parasite causes sleeping sickness?
a) Leishmania
b) Trypanosoma brucei
c) Plasmodium
d) Entamoeba
Answer: b) Trypanosoma brucei
Explanation: Transmitted by tsetse fly, causes African sleeping sickness.
Q91. Which drug is used in cancer chemotherapy?
a) Morphine
b) Cisplatin
c) Quinine
d) Penicillin
Answer: b) Cisplatin
Explanation: Cisplatin interferes with DNA replication in rapidly dividing cancer cells.
Q92. Which cells produce histamine during allergic reactions?
a) Plasma cells
b) Mast cells
c) T-cells
d) NK cells
Answer: b) Mast cells
Explanation: Mast cells release histamine and other chemicals during allergies.
Q93. Which is the causative agent of typhoid fever?
a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b) Salmonella typhi
c) Vibrio cholerae
d) Haemophilus influenzae
Answer: b) Salmonella typhi
Explanation: Causes enteric fever, transmitted by contaminated food and water.
Q94. Which is NOT a protozoan disease?
a) Malaria
b) Amoebiasis
c) Filariasis
d) Sleeping sickness
Answer: c) Filariasis
Explanation: Filariasis is caused by worms (Wuchereria), not protozoa.
Q95. Which cancer originates from connective tissues?
a) Carcinoma
b) Sarcoma
c) Leukemia
d) Lymphoma
Answer: b) Sarcoma
Explanation: Sarcomas arise from bone, cartilage, fat, or muscle tissues.
Q96. Which is NOT a symptom of malaria?
a) Periodic fever and chills
b) Enlarged spleen
c) Anemia
d) Persistent cough
Answer: d) Persistent cough
Explanation: Cough is not typical; malaria symptoms include fever, chills, anemia, organ enlargement.
Q97. Which method is used for quick cancer diagnosis?
a) ELISA
b) Biopsy
c) Agglutination test
d) PCR
Answer: b) Biopsy
Explanation: Biopsy (microscopic examination of tissue) confirms cancer diagnosis.
Q98. Which cancer is strongly linked to tobacco chewing in India?
a) Lung cancer
b) Oral cancer
c) Cervical cancer
d) Colon cancer
Answer: b) Oral cancer
Explanation: Tobacco chewing is the leading cause of oral and pharyngeal cancers in India.
Q99. Which cells are primarily responsible for allergic responses?
a) Mast cells and basophils
b) Plasma cells
c) Cytotoxic T-cells
d) Macrophages
Answer: a) Mast cells and basophils
Explanation: They release histamine and other mediators, causing allergy symptoms.
Q100. Which statement best defines health according to WHO?
a) Absence of disease
b) Proper functioning of organs
c) Complete physical, mental, and social well-being
d) Strong immunity
Answer: c) Complete physical, mental, and social well-being
Explanation: WHO defines health as holistic well-being, not merely absence of disease.
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