Indian Polity & Governance – Centre–State Relations
Assam Public Service Commission (APSC)
Combined Competitive Examination (CCE) – Preliminary Examination
General Studies Paper I (Objective, 200 Marks)
Topic: Indian Polity & Governance
Sub-Topic: Centre–State Relations
Centre–State Relations – Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) with Answers & Explanations
Q1. Centre–State relations in India are mainly discussed in which Part of the Constitution?
A. Part IX
B. Part X
C. Part XI
D. Part XII
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Part XI (Articles 245–263) of the Constitution deals with relations between the Union and the States.
Q2. The distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and States is provided in:
A. Article 245
B. Article 246
C. Article 248
D. Article 250
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Article 246 provides for the distribution of subjects through the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists.
Q3. Which list contains subjects of national importance?
A. State List
B. Concurrent List
C. Union List
D. Residuary List
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The Union List includes subjects like defence, foreign affairs, and atomic energy, which require national uniformity.
Q4. The number of subjects in the Union List is:
A. 66
B. 97
C. 100
D. 52
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The Union List contains 97 subjects.
Q5. Subjects related to police and public order fall under:
A. Union List
B. Concurrent List
C. State List
D. Residuary powers
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Police and public order are State subjects, reflecting federal autonomy.
Q6. Which list contains subjects on which both Centre and States can legislate?
A. Union List
B. State List
C. Concurrent List
D. Residuary List
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The Concurrent List allows both levels to make laws; in case of conflict, Union law prevails.
Q7. In case of conflict between Union and State laws on a Concurrent List subject:
A. State law prevails
B. Union law prevails
C. President decides
D. Supreme Court decides automatically
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Under Article 254, the Union law prevails unless the State law has Presidential assent.
Q8. Residuary powers in India belong to:
A. States
B. Both Centre and States
C. Centre
D. Judiciary
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Unlike some federations, residuary powers lie with the Centre in India.
Q9. Which article deals with the executive powers of the Centre?
A. Article 256
B. Article 257
C. Article 258
D. Article 245
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Article 256 obligates States to comply with Union laws and directions.
Q10. The Centre can give directions to States under:
A. Article 256 and 257
B. Article 352
C. Article 360
D. Article 370
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Articles 256 and 257 empower the Union to issue directions to States for proper governance.
Q11. Financial relations between Centre and States are dealt with in:
A. Part XI
B. Part XII
C. Part XIII
D. Part XIV
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Part XII (Articles 268–293) deals with Centre–State financial relations.
Q12. Which body recommends the distribution of taxes between Centre and States?
A. Planning Commission
B. NITI Aayog
C. Finance Commission
D. GST Council
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The Finance Commission, constituted under Article 280, recommends tax devolution.
Q13. The Finance Commission is constituted every:
A. 3 years
B. 4 years
C. 5 years
D. 6 years
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The Constitution mandates a Finance Commission every five years.
Q14. Which tax is levied by the Centre but collected and appropriated by the States?
A. Income Tax
B. Stamp Duty
C. Excise Duty
D. Corporation Tax
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Certain stamp duties are levied by the Union but collected by States.
Q15. Inter-State Council is provided under:
A. Article 262
B. Article 263
C. Article 280
D. Article 356
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Article 263 provides for the establishment of the Inter-State Council.
Q16. The Inter-State Council primarily aims to:
A. Resolve international disputes
B. Promote Centre–State cooperation
C. Conduct elections
D. Review constitutional amendments
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
It facilitates coordination, consultation, and cooperation between the Centre and States.
Q17. Which body resolves disputes related to inter-state river waters?
A. Supreme Court
B. Inter-State Council
C. Parliament
D. River Water Tribunal
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Inter-state river disputes are resolved through tribunals under Article 262.
Q18. Which emergency has the maximum impact on Centre–State relations?
A. National Emergency
B. State Emergency
C. Financial Emergency
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
All three emergencies affect federal relations, but National Emergency centralizes power the most.
Q19. During National Emergency, State subjects:
A. Remain unaffected
B. Come under Union control
C. Are abolished
D. Are transferred to judiciary
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
During a National Emergency, Parliament can legislate on State List subjects.
Q20. Article 356 relates to:
A. National Emergency
B. State Emergency
C. Financial Emergency
D. President’s Rule
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Article 356 provides for President’s Rule in States.
Q21. Financial Emergency is declared under:
A. Article 352
B. Article 356
C. Article 360
D. Article 370
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Article 360 deals with Financial Emergency.
Q22. Which principle best describes Indian federalism?
A. Loose federation
B. Unitary system
C. Federal system with strong Centre
D. Confederation
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
India is a federal system with a strong Centre, especially in emergencies.
Q23. Which schedule of the Constitution contains the division of powers?
A. 7th Schedule
B. 8th Schedule
C. 9th Schedule
D. 10th Schedule
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The 7th Schedule contains the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists.
Q24. Which body replaced the Planning Commission?
A. Finance Commission
B. GST Council
C. NITI Aayog
D. Inter-State Council
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission to promote cooperative federalism.
Q25. Cooperative federalism emphasizes:
A. Centre’s dominance
B. Judicial supremacy
C. Collaboration between Centre and States
D. State autonomy only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Cooperative federalism stresses partnership and collaboration.
Q26. Competitive federalism refers to:
A. Conflict between Centre and States
B. Competition among States for development
C. Centralized planning
D. Judicial intervention
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
States compete to attract investment and improve governance under competitive federalism.
Q27. Which tax reform strengthened Centre–State financial relations?
A. VAT
B. GST
C. Service Tax
D. Income Tax Amendment
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The Goods and Services Tax (GST) created a unified tax system and cooperative federalism.
Q28. GST Council is an example of:
A. Competitive federalism
B. Judicial federalism
C. Cooperative federalism
D. Fiscal centralization
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The GST Council ensures joint decision-making by Centre and States.
Q29. Which article provides for Parliament’s power to legislate on State subjects in national interest?
A. Article 249
B. Article 250
C. Article 252
D. Article 253
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Article 249 allows Parliament to legislate on State subjects if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution.
Q30. Centre–State relations in India aim to balance:
A. Power and politics
B. Unity and diversity
C. Judiciary and legislature
D. Economy and defence
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The constitutional framework seeks to maintain national unity while respecting regional diversity.
✅ APSC Prelims Smart Tip
For Centre–State Relations, focus on:
- Articles 245–263
- 7th Schedule & Lists
- Finance Commission & GST
- Emergency provisions
- Cooperative vs Competitive federalism
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Centre State Relations MCQs APSC
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Indian federalism MCQs prelims
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Union and State relations polity
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7th Schedule Centre State MCQs
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APSC polity cooperative federalism
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Finance Commission GST MCQs
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Emergency provisions Centre State