Chapter 11: Biotechnology – Principles and Processes – MCQs with Answers & Explanations
CBSE Class 12 Biology MCQs with Answers & Explanations – Biotechnology: Principles and Processes (NCERT Based)
Course & Examination Details
Course: CBSE Class 12 Biology
Unit: Unit IV – Biotechnology
Chapter: Chapter 11 – Biotechnology: Principles and Processes
Prescribed Textbook: NCERT Biology Class XII
Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Exam Relevance: CBSE Board Examinations (Competency-Based & Objective Questions)
SECTION A: Principles of Biotechnology (MCQs 1–6)
Q1. Modern biotechnology mainly depends on:
A. Hybridisation and selection
B. Genetic engineering and bioprocess engineering
C. Mutation breeding and cloning
D. Tissue culture and hybridisation
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: NCERT states that modern biotechnology is based on genetic engineering and bioprocess engineering.
Q2. Genetic engineering refers to:
A. Study of heredity
B. Transfer of traits by crossing
C. Manipulation of DNA to alter genetic makeup
D. Study of enzymes
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Genetic engineering involves direct manipulation of DNA to introduce desired genes.
Q3. Bioprocess engineering is essential for:
A. DNA isolation
B. Cutting of genes
C. Large-scale product formation
D. Gene mutation
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Bioprocess engineering ensures optimal conditions for large-scale production of biological products.
Q4. Which condition is NOT controlled during bioprocess engineering?
A. Temperature
B. pH
C. Light intensity
D. Oxygen supply
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Light is not essential for microbial growth in most bioprocesses.
Q5. Biotechnology is considered interdisciplinary because it combines:
A. Biology only
B. Biology and chemistry
C. Biology, engineering, and informatics
D. Physics and chemistry
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Biotechnology integrates multiple disciplines for product development.
Q6. The ultimate goal of biotechnology is to:
A. Study organisms
B. Modify ecosystems
C. Produce useful biological products
D. Destroy pathogens
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Biotechnology aims at producing useful products for human welfare.
SECTION B: Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology – Restriction Enzymes (MCQs 7–14)
Q7. Restriction enzymes are also called:
A. Molecular motors
B. Molecular scissors
C. Molecular carriers
D. Molecular bridges
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: They cut DNA at specific sites.
Q8. Restriction enzymes were first isolated from:
A. Viruses
B. Plants
C. Bacteria
D. Fungi
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: They occur naturally in bacteria as a defense mechanism.
Q9. Restriction endonucleases cut DNA at:
A. Random sites
B. Specific recognition sequences
C. DNA ends only
D. RNA regions
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: They recognize specific palindromic DNA sequences.
Q10. A palindromic DNA sequence means:
A. Same base composition
B. Same reading frame on one strand
C. Same sequence when read in opposite directions
D. Repeated nucleotide sequence
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Palindromic sequences read the same in 5′→3′ direction on both strands.
Q11. EcoRI produces:
A. Blunt ends
B. Hairpin loops
C. Sticky ends
D. RNA primers
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: EcoRI produces sticky ends that facilitate ligation.
Q12. Sticky ends are useful because they:
A. Prevent ligation
B. Increase specificity of joining DNA fragments
C. Destroy DNA
D. Reduce transformation efficiency
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Complementary base pairing helps efficient ligation.
Q13. Exonucleases differ from endonucleases because they:
A. Cut within DNA
B. Cut DNA ends only
C. Act on RNA
D. Are not enzymes
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Exonucleases remove nucleotides from DNA ends.
Q14. Which enzyme joins DNA fragments?
A. DNA polymerase
B. RNA polymerase
C. DNA ligase
D. Restriction enzyme
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: DNA ligase forms phosphodiester bonds between DNA fragments.
SECTION C: Cloning Vectors (MCQs 15–22)
Q15. A cloning vector is used to:
A. Cut DNA
B. Join DNA
C. Transfer DNA into host
D. Destroy DNA
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Vectors carry foreign DNA into host cells.
Q16. Which of the following is NOT a feature of a good cloning vector?
A. Origin of replication
B. Selectable marker
C. Large size
D. Unique cloning site
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Smaller vectors are easier to manipulate.
Q17. The origin of replication is important because it:
A. Cuts DNA
B. Joins DNA
C. Controls copy number
D. Selects recombinants
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Ori determines replication and copy number of vector.
Q18. Antibiotic resistance genes are used as:
A. Cloning sites
B. Restriction sites
C. Selectable markers
D. Promoters
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: They help identify transformed cells.
Q19. Most commonly used cloning vectors are:
A. Viruses
B. Plasmids
C. Chromosomes
D. RNA molecules
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Plasmids replicate independently and are easy to manipulate.
Q20. Bacteriophages are used as vectors because they:
A. Infect plants
B. Infect bacteria
C. Infect animals
D. Infect fungi
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Bacteriophages infect bacterial host cells.
Q21. Cosmids are:
A. Large plasmids only
B. Hybrid of plasmids and bacteriophages
C. RNA vectors
D. Animal viruses
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Cosmids combine features of plasmids and phages.
Q22. Which feature helps in insertion of foreign DNA?
A. Ori
B. Promoter
C. Cloning site
D. Terminator
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Cloning sites contain restriction enzyme recognition sequences.
SECTION D: Competent Host Cells (MCQs 23–27)
Q23. A competent cell is one that can:
A. Divide rapidly
B. Take up foreign DNA
C. Produce enzymes
D. Resist antibiotics
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Competent cells allow entry of recombinant DNA.
Q24. The most commonly used host in biotechnology is:
A. Yeast
B. Animal cells
C. Escherichia coli
D. Plant cells
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: E. coli is easy to grow and genetically manipulate.
Q25. Calcium chloride treatment helps in:
A. DNA ligation
B. DNA isolation
C. Increasing cell permeability
D. Killing bacteria
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: It facilitates DNA entry into bacterial cells.
Q26. Heat shock treatment mainly helps in:
A. DNA denaturation
B. DNA entry into cells
C. Enzyme activation
D. Protein synthesis
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Heat shock allows recombinant DNA to enter host cells.
Q27. Electroporation uses:
A. Heat
B. Chemicals
C. Electrical pulses
D. Radiation
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Electrical pulses create temporary membrane pores.
SECTION E: Processes of Genetic Engineering (MCQs 28–33)
Q28. The first step in genetic engineering is:
A. Ligation
B. Transformation
C. Isolation of DNA
D. Screening
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Pure DNA must be isolated before manipulation.
Q29. Ligation is carried out by:
A. Restriction enzyme
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA polymerase
D. RNA polymerase
Correct Answer: B
Q30. Introduction of recombinant DNA into host is called:
A. Transduction
B. Translation
C. Transformation
D. Transcription
Correct Answer: C
Q31. Selection of recombinants is done using:
A. Cloning sites
B. Ori
C. Selectable markers
D. Promoters
Correct Answer: C
Q32. Screening ensures:
A. DNA isolation
B. Identification of recombinants
C. DNA amplification
D. DNA cutting
Correct Answer: B
Q33. Expression of foreign gene leads to:
A. DNA destruction
B. Protein synthesis
C. Cell death
D. Vector removal
Correct Answer: B
SECTION F: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) (MCQs 34–39)
Q34. PCR is used for:
A. DNA cutting
B. DNA amplification
C. DNA ligation
D. DNA translation
Correct Answer: B
Q35. PCR requires which enzyme?
A. DNA ligase
B. RNA polymerase
C. Taq polymerase
D. Restriction enzyme
Correct Answer: C
Q36. Taq polymerase is isolated from:
A. E. coli
B. Thermus aquaticus
C. Yeast
D. Virus
Correct Answer: B
Q37. The first step of PCR is:
A. Annealing
B. Extension
C. Denaturation
D. Ligation
Correct Answer: C
Q38. PCR results in:
A. Linear amplification
B. Exponential amplification
C. No amplification
D. Protein synthesis
Correct Answer: B
Q39. PCR is widely used in:
A. Photosynthesis
B. Respiration
C. Medical diagnosis
D. Transpiration
Correct Answer: C
SECTION G: Bioreactors & Downstream Processing (MCQs 40–50)
Q40. A bioreactor is used for:
A. DNA isolation
B. Large-scale production
C. DNA sequencing
D. DNA cutting
Correct Answer: B
Q41. Most commonly used industrial bioreactor is:
A. Airlift bioreactor
B. Stirred-tank bioreactor
C. Batch reactor
D. Continuous reactor
Correct Answer: B
Q42. The agitator in a bioreactor helps in:
A. Heating
B. Cooling
C. Mixing
D. Filtration
Correct Answer: C
Q43. Oxygen is supplied in bioreactors through:
A. Agitator
B. Sparger
C. Sensor
D. Filter
Correct Answer: B
Q44. Downstream processing involves:
A. DNA cutting
B. DNA ligation
C. Product purification
D. Gene amplification
Correct Answer: C
Q45. First step of downstream processing is:
A. Formulation
B. Packaging
C. Biomass separation
D. Quality control
Correct Answer: C
Q46. Chromatography is used for:
A. DNA isolation
B. DNA cutting
C. Product purification
D. Gene transfer
Correct Answer: C
Q47. Formulation ensures:
A. Gene expression
B. Product stability
C. DNA replication
D. Cell growth
Correct Answer: B
Q48. Quality control ensures:
A. High mutation
B. Safety and purity
C. Fast growth
D. DNA damage
Correct Answer: B
Q49. Downstream processing is costly because it:
A. Uses microbes
B. Involves multiple purification steps
C. Requires no equipment
D. Is optional
Correct Answer: B
Q50. Biotechnology products are finally:
A. Discarded
B. Released untreated
C. Packaged after testing
D. Stored without checks
Correct Answer: C
Why This MCQ Set Is Ideal for CBSE Class 12
✔ 100% NCERT-aligned
✔ Chapter-wise, exam-focused coverage
✔ Concept-clearing explanations
✔ Suitable for board exams, unit tests & revision
🎯 Targeting Exams
-
CBSE Class 12 Biology Board Examination
-
CBSE School Unit Tests & Pre-Board Exams
-
NEET (UG) – Foundation & Concept Revision
-
Olympiad & NTSE Biology (Conceptual Practice)
Exam Relevance:
These MCQs are framed strictly as per NCERT Biology Class 12, reflecting the latest CBSE competency-based pattern, making them ideal for objective practice, concept reinforcement, and last-minute revision.
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