Chapter 4: Reproductive Health – MCQs with Answers & Explanations
CBSE Class 12 Biology – Reproductive Health MCQs with Answers & Explanations (NCERT Based)
Course: CBSE Class 12 Biology
Unit I: Reproduction
Chapter 4: Reproductive Health
Board: Central Board of Secondary Education
Textbook: NCERT
Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Total Questions: 50
Exam Relevance: CBSE Class 12 Board Examinations
Section A: Need for Reproductive Health (MCQs 1–8)
Q1. Reproductive health refers to
A. Absence of reproductive diseases
B. Physical well-being only
C. Complete physical, mental and social well-being
D. Fertility only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
NCERT defines reproductive health as complete physical, mental, and social well-being related to the reproductive system, not merely absence of disease.
Q2. Which of the following is a major goal of reproductive health programmes?
A. Increasing birth rate
B. Population explosion
C. Responsible sexual behaviour
D. Early marriages
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Reproductive health programmes aim to promote responsible behaviour, awareness, and healthy reproductive practices.
Q3. Adolescents benefit from reproductive health education because it
A. Encourages early parenthood
B. Promotes myths
C. Prevents STIs and early pregnancy
D. Discourages awareness
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Proper education helps adolescents understand puberty, safe practices, and avoid STIs and early pregnancies.
Q4. Which factor negatively affects reproductive health?
A. Sex education
B. Family planning
C. Early marriage
D. Medical facilities
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Early marriage leads to early pregnancies and health complications, affecting reproductive health.
Q5. The term ‘small family norm’ refers to
A. No children
B. One child only
C. Limited number of children
D. Large families
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Small family norm encourages limiting the number of children to improve quality of life and control population.
Q6. Which programme was launched to improve reproductive health in India?
A. Green Revolution
B. Family planning programme
C. White Revolution
D. Digital India
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
India launched family planning programmes to control population growth and promote reproductive health.
Q7. Reproductive health awareness helps to
A. Increase population
B. Reduce healthcare access
C. Remove myths and taboos
D. Promote unsafe practices
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Awareness programmes remove misconceptions and encourage healthy reproductive practices.
Q8. Reproductive well-being ensures
A. Only physical health
B. Social stability only
C. Healthy reproductive functioning
D. Absence of menstruation
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Reproductive well-being includes healthy reproductive organs along with mental and social balance.
Section B: Population Explosion & Birth Control (MCQs 9–16)
Q9. Population explosion occurs mainly due to
A. High death rate
B. Poor healthcare
C. Reduced mortality rate
D. Natural calamities
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Improved healthcare reduces death rates, leading to rapid population growth.
Q10. Which is a major consequence of population explosion?
A. Improved resources
B. Increased employment
C. Poverty and unemployment
D. Better education
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Overpopulation causes unemployment, poverty, and pressure on resources.
Q11. Birth control refers to
A. Preventing fertilisation only
B. Avoiding marriage
C. Preventing unwanted pregnancies
D. Avoiding ovulation permanently
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Birth control methods help prevent unwanted pregnancies and regulate family size.
Q12. Which age group should be primarily targeted for population control awareness?
A. Children
B. Elderly
C. Reproductive age group
D. Infants
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Awareness among reproductive-age individuals helps control population growth effectively.
Q13. Lactational amenorrhea is effective up to
A. Lifetime
B. One year only
C. During intense breastfeeding
D. Until menopause
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Lactational amenorrhea suppresses ovulation only during intense breastfeeding after childbirth.
Q14. Family planning helps in
A. Increasing population
B. Reducing maternal health risks
C. Early pregnancies
D. Gender imbalance
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Family planning improves maternal and child health by spacing births.
Q15. Which slogan supports population control?
A. More children, more happiness
B. Small family, happy family
C. Population is power
D. Grow fast
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
This slogan promotes small family norms to control population.
Q16. Population control is important for
A. Resource depletion
B. Sustainable development
C. Environmental damage
D. Increased unemployment
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Controlling population ensures sustainable use of resources and better living standards.
Section C: Contraceptive Methods (MCQs 17–30)
Q17. Contraception is the prevention of
A. Fertilisation only
B. Implantation only
C. Pregnancy
D. Ovulation only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Contraception includes methods preventing ovulation, fertilisation, or implantation to avoid pregnancy.
Q18. Which is a natural contraceptive method?
A. Condom
B. Copper-T
C. Oral pills
D. Periodic abstinence
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Periodic abstinence avoids intercourse during fertile days.
Q19. Which method also protects against STIs?
A. Oral pills
B. IUD
C. Condom
D. Vasectomy
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Barrier methods like condoms prevent STIs and pregnancy.
Q20. Copper-T prevents pregnancy mainly by
A. Killing ovum
B. Preventing ovulation
C. Preventing implantation
D. Blocking cervix
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Copper-T makes uterine environment unsuitable for implantation.
Q21. Oral contraceptive pills act by
A. Destroying sperms
B. Blocking fallopian tube
C. Suppressing ovulation
D. Increasing fertilisation
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Oral pills inhibit FSH and LH, preventing ovulation.
Q22. Vasectomy is a method of
A. Female sterilisation
B. Temporary contraception
C. Male sterilisation
D. Hormonal control
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Vasectomy involves cutting vas deferens to prevent sperm transport.
Q23. Tubectomy involves cutting of
A. Uterus
B. Ovary
C. Fallopian tubes
D. Cervix
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Tubectomy blocks fallopian tubes to prevent fertilisation.
Q24. Emergency contraceptive pills should be taken
A. Before intercourse
B. Within a specific time after intercourse
C. After implantation
D. Monthly
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Emergency pills prevent pregnancy if taken soon after unprotected intercourse.
Q25. Which contraceptive is irreversible?
A. IUD
B. Condom
C. Oral pills
D. Sterilisation
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Sterilisation methods are permanent and irreversible.
Q26. Barrier methods are preferred because they
A. Are hormonal
B. Have side effects
C. Prevent STIs
D. Are permanent
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Barrier methods provide dual protection against pregnancy and STIs.
Q27. Hormonal contraceptives may cause
A. No side effects
B. Hormonal imbalance
C. Sterility
D. STIs
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Hormonal pills may cause nausea or hormonal imbalance in some women.
Q28. Which device is inserted into the uterus?
A. Condom
B. Diaphragm
C. Copper-T
D. Implant
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Copper-T is an intrauterine device placed in the uterus.
Q29. Natural contraceptive methods are
A. Highly reliable
B. Permanent
C. Less reliable
D. Surgical
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Natural methods depend on timing and self-control, making them less reliable.
Q30. Which hormone combination is used in oral pills?
A. FSH and LH
B. Estrogen and progesterone
C. Oxytocin and prolactin
D. Testosterone and estrogen
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Oral pills contain estrogen and progesterone to prevent ovulation.
Section D: MTP, STIs, Infertility & ART (MCQs 31–50)
Q31. Medical termination of pregnancy is legalised to
A. Increase abortion rate
B. Encourage sex determination
C. Prevent unsafe abortions
D. Reduce fertility
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Legal MTP prevents unsafe abortions and maternal mortality.
Q32. Unsafe abortions may lead to
A. Improved health
B. Infertility and death
C. Increased fertility
D. Immunity
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Unsafe abortions can cause severe infections and death.
Q33. Misuse of amniocentesis is banned because it was used for
A. Disease detection
B. Infertility treatment
C. Sex determination
D. Genetic therapy
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Amniocentesis misuse led to female foeticide.
Q34. Which is a bacterial STI?
A. AIDS
B. Gonorrhoea
C. Genital herpes
D. HIV
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Gonorrhoea is caused by bacteria.
Q35. HIV causes
A. Syphilis
B. Gonorrhoea
C. AIDS
D. Chlamydia
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
HIV infection leads to AIDS.
Q36. STIs often remain undetected because they are
A. Fatal
B. Asymptomatic
C. Curable easily
D. Visible
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Many STIs show no early symptoms.
Q37. Infertility is diagnosed after failure to conceive for
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
NCERT defines infertility as inability to conceive after one year.
Q38. Low sperm count is called
A. Azoospermia
B. Oligospermia
C. Teratospermia
D. Asthenospermia
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Oligospermia refers to low sperm count.
Q39. ART helps in
A. Population explosion
B. Infertility treatment
C. STIs prevention
D. Gender selection
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
ART helps infertile couples conceive.
Q40. IVF involves fertilisation
A. Inside uterus
B. Inside oviduct
C. Outside the body
D. Inside ovary
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
In IVF, fertilisation occurs outside the body.
Q41. ZIFT involves transfer of
A. Gametes into uterus
B. Zygote into fallopian tube
C. Embryo into cervix
D. Ovum into ovary
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
ZIFT transfers zygote into fallopian tube.
Q42. GIFT involves transfer of
A. Zygote
B. Embryo
C. Gametes
D. Placenta
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
GIFT transfers gametes into the fallopian tube.
Q43. ICSI is useful in cases of
A. Female infertility
B. Severe male infertility
C. STIs
D. Pregnancy loss
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
ICSI helps when sperm count or motility is very low.
Q44. Which ART involves direct injection of sperm into ovum?
A. IVF
B. GIFT
C. ZIFT
D. ICSI
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
ICSI directly injects sperm into ovum.
Q45. Which practice prevents STIs effectively?
A. Oral pills
B. IUDs
C. Condom use
D. Sterilisation
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Condoms prevent STIs and pregnancy.
Q46. Sex education helps in
A. Early marriage
B. Gender bias
C. Responsible behaviour
D. Population explosion
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Sex education promotes responsible sexual practices.
Q47. Counselling in infertility helps to
A. Increase stress
B. Reduce emotional burden
C. Delay treatment
D. Prevent pregnancy
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Counselling provides emotional support to couples.
Q48. Reproductive health programmes aim at
A. Gender imbalance
B. Unsafe practices
C. Overall well-being
D. Increased fertility
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
They ensure physical, mental, and social well-being.
Q49. Which STI is viral in nature?
A. Gonorrhoea
B. Syphilis
C. AIDS
D. Chlamydia
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
AIDS is caused by HIV, a virus.
Q50. Reproductive health contributes to
A. Resource depletion
B. Sustainable development
C. Population explosion
D. Environmental damage
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Healthy population growth supports sustainable development.
✅ Why This MCQ Set is Board-Perfect
✔ Strict NCERT alignment
✔ 50 fully solved MCQs with explanations
✔ Covers entire chapter framework
✔ Ideal for CBSE Class 12 board exams & revision
🎯 Targeting Exams Section
This MCQ set is designed to support preparation for the following examinations:
-
CBSE Class 12 Biology Board Examination
-
School Unit Tests & Pre-Board Exams
-
CBSE Term-wise Assessments
-
NEET Foundation / Olympiad (Concept Level)
-
CUET (UG) Biology – Reproductive Health Concepts
All questions strictly follow NCERT terminology and CBSE exam patterns, ensuring high relevance for board scoring.
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