Chapter 3: Human Reproduction – MCQs with Answers & Explanations
CBSE Class 12 Biology MCQs on Human Reproduction (NCERT Based)
Course: CBSE Class 12 Biology
Unit I: Reproduction
Chapter 3: Human Reproduction
Board: Central Board of Secondary Education
Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Total Questions: 50
Syllabus Source: NCERT
Exam Relevance: CBSE Class 12 Board Examinations
Section A: Male Reproductive System (MCQs 1–8)
Q1. Testes are located outside the abdominal cavity because
A. They produce sperm continuously
B. They require a lower temperature for spermatogenesis
C. They secrete testosterone
D. They store sperms
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Spermatogenesis requires a temperature about 2–2.5°C lower than body temperature. The scrotum maintains this lower temperature by positioning the testes outside the abdominal cavity, ensuring normal sperm formation.
Q2. Sertoli cells are located in the
A. Epididymis
B. Vas deferens
C. Seminiferous tubules
D. Prostate gland
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Sertoli cells line the seminiferous tubules and provide nourishment and support to developing spermatogenic cells during spermatogenesis.
Q3. Which hormone stimulates spermatogenesis directly?
A. LH
B. FSH
C. Prolactin
D. Estrogen
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
FSH acts on Sertoli cells and stimulates spermatogenesis. LH indirectly supports the process by stimulating testosterone secretion.
Q4. Testosterone is secreted by
A. Sertoli cells
B. Seminiferous tubules
C. Leydig cells
D. Prostate gland
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Leydig (interstitial) cells present in the testes secrete testosterone, responsible for male secondary sexual characters and maintenance of spermatogenesis.
Q5. Fructose in semen is secreted by
A. Prostate gland
B. Cowper’s gland
C. Seminal vesicles
D. Epididymis
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Seminal vesicles secrete fructose, which provides energy for sperm motility.
Q6. The acrosome of sperm contains enzymes necessary for
A. Motility
B. Nourishment
C. Penetration of ovum
D. Flagellar movement
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The acrosome releases enzymes like hyaluronidase that help the sperm penetrate the zona pellucida of the ovum during fertilisation.
Q7. Vas deferens functions to
A. Produce sperms
B. Store sperms
C. Transport sperms
D. Nourish sperms
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The vas deferens transports sperms from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct.
Q8. Which gland contributes maximum volume to semen?
A. Prostate
B. Bulbourethral
C. Seminal vesicle
D. Epididymis
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Seminal vesicles contribute nearly 60–70% of seminal fluid, forming the major portion of semen.
Section B: Female Reproductive System (MCQs 9–16)
Q9. Ovulation normally occurs on which day of a 28-day menstrual cycle?
A. Day 7
B. Day 14
C. Day 21
D. Day 28
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Ovulation occurs mid-cycle (around day 14) due to an LH surge.
Q10. Fertilisation in humans usually occurs in the
A. Uterus
B. Cervix
C. Ampulla of oviduct
D. Infundibulum
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The ampullary-isthmic junction of the fallopian tube is the usual site of fertilisation.
Q11. The hormone responsible for preparation of uterus for implantation is
A. Estrogen
B. FSH
C. Progesterone
D. LH
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Progesterone prepares and maintains the endometrium for implantation of the blastocyst.
Q12. Corpus luteum develops from
A. Primary follicle
B. Secondary follicle
C. Tertiary follicle
D. Graafian follicle
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
After ovulation, the Graafian follicle transforms into the corpus luteum.
Q13. Menstrual phase occurs due to
A. Increase in estrogen
B. Increase in progesterone
C. Decrease in progesterone
D. Increase in FSH
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Degeneration of corpus luteum causes a drop in progesterone, leading to shedding of endometrium.
Q14. Fimbriae help in
A. Ovulation
B. Fertilisation
C. Capturing ovum
D. Implantation
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Fimbriae of the oviduct collect the ovum released from the ovary.
Q15. Estrogen is primarily secreted by
A. Corpus luteum
B. Developing ovarian follicles
C. Pituitary gland
D. Placenta
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Developing follicles secrete estrogen, which promotes growth of the endometrium.
Q16. The cervix connects the uterus to the
A. Ovary
B. Oviduct
C. Vagina
D. Vulva
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The cervix opens into the vagina and forms the cervical canal.
Section C: Gametogenesis (MCQs 17–26)
Q17. Spermatogenesis begins at
A. Birth
B. Puberty
C. Adolescence
D. Old age
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Spermatogenesis starts at puberty under hormonal influence.
Q18. A primary spermatocyte is
A. Haploid
B. Diploid
C. Polyploid
D. Aneuploid
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Primary spermatocytes are diploid and undergo meiosis I.
Q19. Number of sperms formed from one primary spermatocyte is
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
One primary spermatocyte undergoes meiosis to form four haploid sperms.
Q20. Oogenesis differs from spermatogenesis because it
A. Produces many gametes
B. Is continuous
C. Produces one ovum
D. Occurs in testes
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Oogenesis produces one functional ovum and polar bodies, unlike spermatogenesis.
Q21. Primary oocytes remain arrested in
A. Metaphase I
B. Prophase I
C. Metaphase II
D. Telophase I
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Primary oocytes remain arrested in prophase I until puberty.
Q22. Secondary oocyte completes meiosis II only after
A. Ovulation
B. Puberty
C. Fertilisation
D. Menstruation
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Meiosis II is completed only if fertilisation occurs.
Q23. Polar bodies are formed during
A. Spermiogenesis
B. Oogenesis
C. Fertilisation
D. Cleavage
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Polar bodies are by-products of oogenesis and degenerate.
Q24. Spermiogenesis refers to
A. Formation of spermatids
B. Conversion of spermatids to sperms
C. Meiosis in spermatocytes
D. Sperm release
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Spermiogenesis is differentiation of spermatids into mature sperms.
Q25. Hormone inhibin regulates secretion of
A. LH
B. FSH
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Inhibin selectively inhibits FSH secretion.
Q26. Sperm motility is mainly due to
A. Acrosome
B. Head
C. Neck
D. Tail
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The flagellum (tail) enables movement of sperm.
Section D: Fertilisation, Pregnancy, Parturition & Lactation (MCQs 27–50)
Q27. Capacitation of sperm occurs in the
A. Testis
B. Epididymis
C. Female reproductive tract
D. Seminal vesicle
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Capacitation occurs inside the female tract and makes sperms capable of fertilisation.
Q28. Implantation occurs approximately
A. 2 days after fertilisation
B. 4 days after fertilisation
C. 7–8 days after fertilisation
D. 14 days after fertilisation
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Blastocyst implants into the endometrium about a week after fertilisation.
Q29. hCG is secreted by
A. Ovary
B. Corpus luteum
C. Trophoblast
D. Placenta (later stage)
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
hCG is secreted by trophoblast cells soon after implantation.
Q30. Pregnancy test detects
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. hCG
D. LH
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
hCG in urine confirms pregnancy.
Q31. Placenta acts as
A. Digestive organ
B. Respiratory organ
C. Endocrine organ
D. All of these
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Placenta performs nutrition, respiration, excretion, and endocrine functions.
Q32. Hormone responsible for milk production is
A. Oxytocin
B. Estrogen
C. Prolactin
D. hPL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Prolactin stimulates milk synthesis in mammary glands.
Q33. Milk ejection is controlled by
A. Prolactin
B. Oxytocin
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Oxytocin causes contraction of myoepithelial cells leading to milk ejection.
Q34. Colostrum is rich in
A. Fats
B. Lactose
C. Antibodies
D. Minerals
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Colostrum provides passive immunity to newborns.
Q35. Hormone responsible for parturition is
A. Relaxin
B. Estrogen
C. Oxytocin
D. Prolactin
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Oxytocin induces strong uterine contractions during childbirth.
Q36. Positive feedback mechanism is seen in
A. Ovulation
B. Fertilisation
C. Parturition
D. Menstruation
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Oxytocin release increases uterine contractions, which further increase oxytocin secretion.
Section D (Continued): Fertilisation, Pregnancy, ART & Reproductive Health
Q37. In vitro fertilisation (IVF) involves
A. Fertilisation inside uterus
B. Fertilisation inside oviduct
C. Fertilisation outside the body
D. Artificial insemination
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
In IVF, fertilisation of ovum by sperm occurs outside the female body in a laboratory. The resulting embryo is later transferred into the uterus.
Q38. Zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT) involves transfer of
A. Gametes into uterus
B. Zygote into fallopian tube
C. Embryo into cervix
D. Ovum into ovary
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
In ZIFT, the zygote or early embryo (up to 8 blastomeres) is transferred into the fallopian tube for further development.
Q39. Infertility is diagnosed when a couple fails to conceive after
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
According to NCERT, infertility is the inability to conceive after one year of regular, unprotected intercourse.
Q40. Low sperm count in males is known as
A. Azoospermia
B. Oligospermia
C. Teratospermia
D. Asthenospermia
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Oligospermia refers to a condition where sperm count is below normal, leading to male infertility.
Q41. Gastrulation results in the formation of
A. Blastocyst
B. Morula
C. Germ layers
D. Placenta
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Gastrulation is the developmental stage during which three primary germ layers are formed.
Q42. Which germ layer gives rise to the nervous system?
A. Endoderm
B. Mesoderm
C. Ectoderm
D. Trophoblast
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Ectoderm forms the nervous system, epidermis of skin, hair, and sense organs.
Q43. The heart and blood vessels develop from
A. Ectoderm
B. Endoderm
C. Mesoderm
D. Trophoderm
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Mesoderm forms muscles, bones, circulatory system, kidneys, and reproductive organs.
Q44. Oral contraceptive pills primarily prevent pregnancy by
A. Destroying sperms
B. Preventing ovulation
C. Blocking uterus
D. Killing ovum
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Oral pills inhibit ovulation by suppressing FSH and LH secretion through hormonal regulation.
Q45. Which contraceptive method also protects against STIs?
A. Oral pills
B. Copper-T
C. Condom
D. Tubectomy
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Barrier methods like condoms prevent sperm entry and protect against sexually transmitted infections.
Q46. Copper-T prevents pregnancy mainly by
A. Preventing ovulation
B. Killing sperms
C. Preventing implantation
D. Blocking cervix
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Copper-T increases phagocytosis of sperms and makes the uterine environment unsuitable for implantation.
Q47. Surgical sterilisation in males is called
A. Tubectomy
B. Vasectomy
C. Ligation
D. Ovariectomy
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Vasectomy involves cutting and tying the vas deferens to prevent sperm transport.
Q48. Reproductive health refers to
A. Absence of disease only
B. Proper functioning of organs
C. Physical, emotional, and social well-being
D. Only fertility
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Reproductive health includes complete physical, mental, and social well-being related to reproduction.
Q49. Sex education helps in
A. Increasing population
B. Preventing early pregnancy
C. Causing infertility
D. Hormone imbalance
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Sex education creates awareness about reproductive health, contraception, and prevention of STIs, reducing early and unwanted pregnancies.
Q50. Amniocentesis is legally banned in India because it was misused for
A. Disease detection
B. Hormonal analysis
C. Sex determination
D. Infertility treatment
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Amniocentesis was misused for prenatal sex determination, leading to female foeticide. Hence, it is banned under Indian law.
✅ MCQ Set Completion Status
✔ Q1–Q50 fully covered
✔ 100% NCERT-aligned content
✔ Balanced easy–moderate–HOTS questions
✔ Ideal for Central Board of Secondary Education Class 12 Board Exams
🎯 Targeting Exams Section
This MCQ set is specially designed to support preparation for:
-
CBSE Class 12 Biology Board Examination
-
School Unit Tests & Pre-Board Exams
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CBSE Term-wise Assessments
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NEET Foundation (Concept Clarity Level)
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CUET (UG) Biology – Fundamental Concepts
All questions strictly follow NCERT terminology, making them ideal for board-oriented revision and exam scoring.
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