Federalism – MCQs with Answers and Explanations

CBSE Class 10 Civics – Federalism | 30 MCQs with Answers & Explanations

CBSE Class 10 – Social Science (Civics)

Subject: Political Science (Democratic Politics – II)

Chapter 2: Federalism – What is Federalism? | What makes India a Federal Country? | How is Federalism practised? | Decentralisation in India

30 Topic-wise Multiple Choice Questions with answers and detailed explanations, strictly based on NCERT – ideal for CBSE Class 10 Board Examination preparation.

CBSE Board Examinations – Objective Question Pattern (Indicative)

MCQs / Objective Type: Check understanding of concepts like federalism, Union–State relations, language policy and decentralisation.
Case/Source-Based MCQs: Apply concepts to situations and interpret constitutional provisions.
Questions below are framed in line with the NCERT textbook and CBSE’s competency-based pattern.

How to Use: Attempt each MCQ first without seeing the answer. Then click on “Show Answer & Explanation” to check the correct option and read the concept-clearing explanation for strong exam revision.

1. Basics of Federalism – Concept & Features

Basics of Federalism

Q1. Federalism is best defined as:

(A) A system in which all powers are concentrated in the central government.
(B) A system in which power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units.
(C) A system in which only state governments have real powers.
(D) A system in which army controls the government.

Correct Option: (B)

Explanation: Federalism means division of powers between a central (national) authority and various regional governments (states/provinces), both of which are constitutionally protected. Option (A) describes a unitary system, not federalism. Options (C) and (D) are incorrect because in a federation, power is shared – not concentrated only in states or the army.

Basics of Federalism

Q2. Which of the following is usually not a feature of a federal government?

(A) Two or more levels of government.
(B) Division of powers by the Constitution.
(C) Powers of state governments can be changed by the central government at its will.
(D) Independent judiciary.

Correct Option: (C)

Explanation: In a true federal system, the powers of state governments are constitutionally protected and cannot be changed unilaterally by the centre. So option (C) is not a feature of federalism. The other options – multiple levels of government, constitutional division of powers, and independent judiciary – are core features of federalism.

Basics of Federalism

Q3. Federalism is suitable for countries which:

(A) Are very small and have no diversity.
(B) Are large in size and have linguistic and cultural diversity.
(C) Have only one religion and one language.
(D) Do not believe in democracy.

Correct Option: (B)

Explanation: Federalism is particularly suitable for large and diverse countries like India because it allows different regions and communities to have their own governments and policies, while still remaining united. Small, homogeneous countries often follow a unitary system. Hence option (B) is correct.

Basics of Federalism

Q4. Which pair of countries correctly represents one federal and one unitary system?

(A) India – Federal, Sri Lanka – Unitary
(B) India – Unitary, Sri Lanka – Federal
(C) Both India and Sri Lanka – Unitarty
(D) Both India and Sri Lanka – Federal

Correct Option: (A)

Explanation: India has a federal system with Union and State governments, while Sri Lanka has a unitary system where most powers rest with the national government. So option (A) correctly represents the two systems.

Basics of Federalism

Q5. Which of the following statements about federalism is correct?

(A) Federalism always leads to the breakup of a country.
(B) Federalism helps to accommodate diversity within a country.
(C) Federalism means power should be concentrated in one level of government.
(D) Federalism is against the spirit of democracy.

Correct Option: (B)

Explanation: Federalism is a way to share power and is used mainly to manage diversity in large countries. It does not necessarily lead to breakup; in fact, it often prevents conflicts by giving autonomy to regions. Hence option (B) is correct.

2. What Makes India a Federal Country?

India as a Federal Country

Q6. How many lists of subjects are provided in the Indian Constitution for division of powers?

(A) One list
(B) Two lists
(C) Three lists
(D) Four lists

Correct Option: (C)

Explanation: The Indian Constitution provides for a threefold distribution of powers through the Union List, State List and Concurrent List. Therefore, the correct answer is three lists.

Union List

Q7. Which of the following subjects is included in the Union List?

(A) Police
(B) Public health
(C) Agriculture
(D) Defence

Correct Option: (D)

Explanation: The Union List includes subjects of national importance such as defence, foreign affairs, banking, currency, etc. Defence is clearly a national subject, so (D) is correct. Police, health and agriculture are normally state subjects.

State List

Q8. Which of the following is a subject of the State List?

(A) Railway
(B) Banking
(C) Police
(D) Foreign affairs

Correct Option: (C)

Explanation: Subjects such as police, public order, agriculture and irrigation fall in the State List. Railways, banking and foreign affairs are subjects of the Union List.

Concurrent List

Q9. Which subject is included in the Concurrent List in India?

(A) Currency
(B) Defence
(C) Education
(D) Police

Correct Option: (C)

Explanation: The Concurrent List contains subjects of common interest to both Union and States. Education, forests, trade unions, marriage, adoption etc. are included in this list, so (C) is correct.

Concurrent List

Q10. If there is a conflict between Union and State law on a concurrent subject:

(A) The State law will prevail.
(B) The Union law will prevail.
(C) Both laws will be cancelled.
(D) The President will decide which law to follow.

Correct Option: (B)

Explanation: On subjects in the Concurrent List, both Union and States can make laws, but if there is a conflict, the Union law prevails. This is clearly mentioned in the Constitution to maintain national uniformity in important matters.

Residuary Powers

Q11. Residuary powers in India are vested in:

(A) State Governments
(B) Local Governments
(C) Union Government
(D) Governors

Correct Option: (C)

Explanation: Residuary powers are powers related to subjects not mentioned in any of the three lists. In India, such powers are given to the Union Government, which again shows that India is a federation with a strong centre.

India as a Federal Country

Q12. Which of the following features makes India a federal country?

(A) Written Constitution and division of powers.
(B) Only one level of government.
(C) Parliament can change state boundaries casually.
(D) No role for states in decision-making.

Correct Option: (A)

Explanation: A written Constitution, clear division of powers between Union and States, and an independent judiciary are key features of India’s federal system. Options (B), (C) and (D) contradict federal principles.

3. How is Federalism Practised? – Linguistic States & Language Policy

Linguistic States

Q13. The creation of linguistic states in India has:

(A) Weakened India’s unity.
(B) Strengthened India’s unity.
(C) Led to the breakup of the country.
(D) No impact on federalism.

Correct Option: (B)

Explanation: Many people feared that linguistic states would disintegrate India. But in reality, they strengthened the nation by recognising regional identities and reducing tensions. People felt more respected and integrated within India.

Linguistic States

Q14. Which of the following is a correct statement about the reorganisation of states in India?

(A) States were reorganised only on religious lines.
(B) States were reorganised mainly on linguistic lines.
(C) States were never reorganised after independence.
(D) States are reorganised only on economic lines.

Correct Option: (B)

Explanation: After independence, Indian states were reorganised mainly on the basis of language, so that people who spoke the same language could live in the same state. Religion or only economic factors were not the basis.

Language Policy

Q15. Which statement about India’s national language is correct?

(A) Hindi is the national language of India.
(B) English is the national language of India.
(C) India has no national language.
(D) Both Hindi and English are national languages.

Correct Option: (C)

Explanation: The Indian Constitution does not declare any language as a national language. Hindi (in Devanagari script) is the official language of the Union and English is an associate official language, but there is no national language.

Language Policy

Q16. Hindi in Devanagari script is:

(A) National language of India.
(B) Official language of the Union.
(C) Only language allowed in courts.
(D) The language of all state governments.

Correct Option: (B)

Explanation: The Constitution recognises Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union. States are free to have their own official languages. Courts also widely use English, and there is no single national language.

Language Policy

Q17. Why was English allowed to continue as an associate official language in India?

(A) Because no one wanted to use Hindi.
(B) To avoid conflict with non-Hindi speaking states.
(C) Because English was declared the national language.
(D) Because states refused to learn Hindi.

Correct Option: (B)

Explanation: Many non-Hindi speaking states opposed the complete replacement of English by Hindi. To avoid linguistic conflict and maintain unity, the central government decided to continue English as an associate official language along with Hindi.

Language Policy

Q18. India’s language policy can be described as:

(A) Rigid and imposed from above.
(B) Flexible and accommodative.
(C) Based on only one language.
(D) Opposed to regional languages.

Correct Option: (B)

Explanation: India has followed a flexible and accommodative language policy. It recognises many languages, allows states to have their own official language and continues English along with Hindi, thus respecting linguistic diversity.

4. Changing Centre–State Relations

Centre–State Relations

Q19. In the early years after independence, Centre–State relations in India can be described as:

(A) Highly decentralised.
(B) Fully equal.
(C) Centralised, with dominance of the Centre.
(D) Without any role of the Centre.

Correct Option: (C)

Explanation: For a long time, the same party ruled at the Centre and in most states, resulting in a centralised federation where the Centre was very dominant. Genuine federal practices developed more strongly only later.

Centre–State Relations

Q20. Which development has strengthened federalism in India after the 1990s?

(A) Rise of regional parties and coalition governments.
(B) Only one party ruling in all states.
(C) Removal of State Governments.
(D) No role for states in national politics.

Correct Option: (A)

Explanation: Since the 1990s, the rise of regional parties and the formation of coalition governments at the Centre have given states a stronger voice in national politics, making India more genuinely federal.

President’s Rule

Q21. Article 356 of the Indian Constitution is related to:

(A) Reservation in Panchayats
(B) Official language of the Union
(C) Imposition of President’s Rule in a state
(D) Creation of new states

Correct Option: (C)

Explanation: Article 356 deals with President’s Rule, which allows the central government to take over the state government if the constitutional machinery fails in that state.

Centre–State Relations

Q22. Frequent misuse of Article 356 in the past:

(A) Strengthened federalism.
(B) Weakened federalism.
(C) Had no effect on federalism.
(D) Removed the need for state governments.

Correct Option: (B)

Explanation: Misuse of Article 356 to dismiss elected state governments weakened federalism by reducing the autonomy of states and going against the spirit of state-level democracy.

Centre–State Relations

Q23. Which institution has helped to curb the misuse of Article 356 and protect Indian federalism?

(A) Parliament
(B) Supreme Court
(C) Election Commission
(D) Gram Sabha

Correct Option: (B)

Explanation: The Supreme Court has given important judgments restricting the misuse of Article 356. It allows judicial review of proclamations of President’s Rule, thereby protecting the federal structure.

5. Decentralisation in India & Panchayati Raj

Decentralisation

Q24. Decentralisation means:

(A) Concentration of all powers at the Centre.
(B) Transfer of power from higher levels to lower levels of government.
(C) Abolition of state governments.
(D) Rule of the army.

Correct Option: (B)

Explanation: Decentralisation refers to sharing and transferring powers from central and state governments to local governments (Panchayats and Municipalities), so that decisions are taken closer to people.

Decentralisation

Q25. Which Constitutional Amendment is mainly linked with strengthening Panchayati Raj in rural areas?

(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 73rd Amendment
(D) 86th Amendment

Correct Option: (C)

Explanation: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions and strengthened rural local self-government.

Panchayati Raj Structure

Q26. Panchayati Raj in rural areas has:

(A) One tier
(B) Two tiers
(C) Three tiers
(D) Four tiers

Correct Option: (C)

Explanation: Rural Panchayati Raj has a three-tier structure – Gram Panchayat at village level, Panchayat Samiti at block level and Zila Parishad at district level.

Gram Sabha

Q27. Gram Sabha consists of:

(A) Only elected representatives of the village.
(B) All adult voters of the village.
(C) Only women voters of the village.
(D) Only the Sarpanch and Panchs.

Correct Option: (B)

Explanation: The Gram Sabha is the body of all adult voters in a village. It meets to discuss and approve important decisions and the budget of the Gram Panchayat.

Reservation in Panchayats

Q28. At least what fraction of seats in Panchayats are reserved for women?

(A) One-tenth
(B) One-fourth
(C) One-third
(D) Half

Correct Option: (C)

Explanation: The 73rd Amendment mandates that at least one-third of seats in Panchayats are reserved for women. Many states have increased this to 50%, but the minimum guaranteed is one-third.

Local Government

Q29. Which of the following local bodies is responsible for governing big cities?

(A) Gram Panchayat
(B) Municipal Corporation
(C) Zila Parishad
(D) Panchayat Samiti

Correct Option: (B)

Explanation: Municipal Corporations govern big cities and are part of the third tier of government (urban local self-government). Gram Panchayats and Zila Parishads work in rural areas.

Decentralisation & Democracy

Q30. How does decentralisation make democracy stronger?

(A) By taking power away from people.
(B) By concentrating power at the Centre.
(C) By allowing people to participate in decision-making at local levels.
(D) By abolishing local bodies.

Correct Option: (C)

Explanation: Decentralisation creates local governments that are closer to the people. Citizens can directly participate in Gram Sabha or municipal meetings, influence decisions and hold representatives accountable. This makes democracy deeper and more meaningful.

Federalism – MCQs with Answers and Explanations

CBSE Class 10 – Social Science (Civics)

CBSE Board Examinations – Objective Question Pattern (Indicative)

1. Basics of Federalism – Concept & Features

2. What Makes India a Federal Country?

3. How is Federalism Practised? – Linguistic States & Language Policy

4. Changing Centre–State Relations

5. Decentralisation in India & Panchayati Raj

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